'God has spoken at sundry times and in divers manners'

[complete]

Hello there,

I read the following today, and thought it worth entering on the forum for consideration:-

We must not take Truth belonging to a past economy (or dispensation) and interpret it of the present. If we do we at once put ourselves under the Law, to which we died, in Christ, and from which Christ has therefore made us free; the Law having no power over a man that has died.

To those who lived under the law it could rightly and truly be said: 'It shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the Lord our God, as He hath commanded us' (Deut. 6:25). But to those who live in this present economy of grace, it is as truly declared, 'By the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in His sight' (Rom. 3:20; see also Gal. 2:16; 3:11 & chapter). But this is the very opposite of Deut. 6:15! What then are we to say, or to do? Which of these two statements is true? and which is false?

The answer is, that neither is false. But both are true if we rightly divide the Word of truth as to the various teaching and truths revealed in each economy (or dispensation) in Scripture.'

For God has spoken st sundry times and in divers manners' (Heb.1:1)

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[ScottA]

Hello there,

I read the following today, and thought it worth entering on the forum for consideration:-

We must not take Truth belonging to a past economy (or dispensation) and interpret it of the present. If we do we at once put ourselves under the Law, to which we died, in Christ, and from which Christ has therefore made us free; the Law having no power over a man that has died.

To those who lived under the law it could rightly and truly be said: 'It shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the Lord our God, as He hath commanded us' (Deut. 6:25). But to those who live in this present economy of grace, it is as truly declared, 'By the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in His sight' (Rom. 3:20; see also Gal. 2:16; 3:11 & chapter). But this is the very opposite of Deut. 6:15! What then are we to say, or to do? Which of these two statements is true? and which is false?

The answer is, that neither is false. But both are true if we rightly divide the Word of truth as to the various teaching and truths revealed in each economy (or dispensation) in Scripture.'

For God has spoken st sundry times and in divers manners' (Heb.1:1)

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

In Christ Jesus
Chris

Those times of Israel, and of the past--those times of the natural attempting to do righteously, only proved us, the natural born of flesh and blood, to be incapable, thus fulfilling "By the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in His sight."

Even so, the call--the call and command to do righteously, was rather to "be perfect as our Father in heaven is perfect"--but in Christ (Matthew 5:48).