Let's exegete Hebrews 10:37 in context

[HappyOma]

i did exegete the Hebrews 10:29-31 by the words of Christ Himself

Here, look -n-SEE = Revelation

Rev 3:11 - Because you have kept My command to persevere, I also will keep you from the hour of trial which shall come upon the whole world, to test those who dwell on the earth. Behold, I am coming quickly! Hold fast what you have, that no one may take your crown.

Rev 22:7 - Behold, I am coming quickly! Blessed is he who keeps the words of the prophecy of this book.”

Rev 22:12 - And behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to give to every one according to his work.
I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last.”

Rev 22:20 - He who testifies to these things says, “Surely I am coming quickly.”

You have not exegeted Hebrews 10:37. You are deflecting by referring to a passage in Revelation.

But since you did, let's go there.

The writer of Hebrews clearly told those of HIS own day that the Lord was coming to THEM "in a very, very little while." And He did.

John was shown those things which were to SHORTLY take place; the time was NEAR (Rev. 1:1, 3; 22:6, 10). Notice that he was told this is both the FIRST and LAST chapter of the Book. You conveniently left our Revelation 22:6 and 22:10--a common occurrence with futurists.

What do those verses say, David in NJ.

I assume that you are claiming that the word "quickly" (often translated as SOON) means that when He comes, He will do so very fast!!!!!

That is not what the word means there. Look at verse 6. It reveals the meaning of "quickly."

"And he said unto me, These sayings are faithful and true: and the Lord God of the holy prophets sent his angel to shew unto his servants the things which must SHORTLY be done."

Look also at verse10 (which you ignored):

And he saith unto me, Seal not the sayings of the prophecy of this book: for the time is AT HAND.

These things were to SHORTLY take place--in John's own day. THAT is why he was told to NOT seal up the vision. The time for its fulfillment was AT HAND. In THAT context, Jesus said He was come "quickly" (i.e., SOON). And He did.

David, one must FIRST look at the very words of a passage and the surrounding context BEFORE he seeks to make it fit another passage.

However, the "very, very little while" of Hebrews 10:30 DOES coincide with Revelation 22. They are the SAME coming of Christ that was to come SOON in John's day ("a very, very little while).

What does Hebrews 10:37 mean? When did the writer say that HE who IS coming would come?

 

[Davy]

Yep. Clear as a bell. The Greek "Mikron, hoson, hoson" terms used in this Hebrews 10:37 verse are translated "a little while, how little, how little!" James 5 also taught that Christ's coming was compared to the "judge" that was then "standing at the door" as the book of James was being written . There is such a variety of urgent phrases used by all the NT authors for the timing of the Lord's coming in that generation that I am amazed at how many decades I read these scriptures without ever understanding the first-century generation timing of their fulfillment. Better late than never, however.

Yet because I believe Scripture taught a literal, bodily second coming return of Christ in AD 70, this does not eliminate a third coming in our future to "harvest" the last third group of saints' bodies out of the grave. Three OT harvest events at Passover, Pentecost, and the Feast of Tabernacles under Mosaic law served as a pattern for a total of three group resurrection events for the bodies of the saints out of the grave. Even a young child can see this comparison.

WARNING BRETHREN IN CHRIST:
The above FALSE statements propose man's FALSE theory called Full Preterism, which teaches that Jesus' 2nd coming ALREADY HAPPENED! That's why he said above Christ's bodily return in AD 70, which of course NEVER happened! He is telling LIES right here before you. Why in the world does this Forum allow such types that come here working against Lord Jesus Christ?

 

[David in NJ]

You have not exegeted Hebrews 10:37. You are deflecting by referring to a passage in Revelation.

But since you did, let's go there.

The writer of Hebrews clearly told those of HIS own day that the Lord was coming to THEM "in a very, very little while." And He did.

John was shown those things which were to SHORTLY take place; the time was NEAR (Rev. 1:1, 3; 22:6, 10). Notice that he was told this is both the FIRST and LAST chapter of the Book. You conveniently left our Revelation 22:6 and 22:10--a common occurrence with futurists.

What do those verses say, David in NJ.

I assume that you are claiming that the word "quickly" (often translated as SOON) means that when He comes, He will do so very fast!!!!!

That is not what the word means there. Look at verse 6. It reveals the meaning of "quickly."

"And he said unto me, These sayings are faithful and true: and the Lord God of the holy prophets sent his angel to shew unto his servants the things which must SHORTLY be done."

Look also at verse10 (which you ignored):

And he saith unto me, Seal not the sayings of the prophecy of this book: for the time is AT HAND.

These things were to SHORTLY take place--in John's own day. THAT is why he was told to NOT seal up the vision. The time for its fulfillment was AT HAND. In THAT context, Jesus said He was come "quickly" (i.e., SOON). And He did.

David, one must FIRST look at the very words of a passage and the surrounding context BEFORE he seeks to make it fit another passage.

However, the "very, very little while" of Hebrews 10:30 DOES coincide with Revelation 22. They are the SAME coming of Christ that was to come SOON in John's day ("a very, very little while).

What does Hebrews 10:37 mean? When did the writer say that HE who IS coming would come?

God is Saying the SAME from the Resurrection of Christ unto His Second Coming = Behold, I come quickly

God is STRESSING to us who are presently confined to this earth/world in physical bodies that we have a SHORT TIME before HE Comes for us at our death = culminating UP to His Second Coming

 

[HappyOma]

Yep. Clear as a bell. The Greek "Mikron, hoson, hoson" terms used in this Hebrews 10:37 verse are translated "a little while, how little, how little!" James 5 also taught that Christ's coming was compared to the "judge" that was then "standing at the door" as the book of James was being written . There is such a variety of urgent phrases used by all the NT authors for the timing of the Lord's coming in that generation that I am amazed at how many decades I read these scriptures without ever understanding the first-century generation timing of their fulfillment. Better late than never, however.

Yet because I believe Scripture taught a literal, bodily second coming return of Christ in AD 70, this does not eliminate a third coming in our future to "harvest" the last third group of saints' bodies out of the grave. Three OT harvest events at Passover, Pentecost, and the Feast of Tabernacles under Mosaic law served as a pattern for a total of three group resurrection events for the bodies of the saints out of the grave. Even a young child can see this comparison.

You are almost there, 3 Resurrections. Jesus was not to come bodily and visibly. Let's really look at the meaning of Acts 1:11. He was to come in LIKE manner--in CLOUDS. That is the point of the angels' words.

If Jesus came "in a very, very little while," then the resurrection came with Him--and Judgment. The misunderstanding of the NATURE of Christ's return and the NATURE of the resurrection causes many to stumble over the clear time words and statements. He is not coming a "third" time "in our future."

What was the "death" Jesus came to overcome?

 

[3 Resurrections]

There is only one Resurrection of the Just spoken/prophesied of by JESUS, the OT Prophets and the Apostles

No, Paul taught that there were three of those resurrection events. He presented this in 1 Cor. 15:23-24. Each of these resurrection events would happen in a particular "order". The Greek word Paul used there was "tagmati", which has the connotation of the ranked military order of a procession of soldiers. One after the other taking place in sequence of time.

#1 "Christ the First-fruits" in AD 33, along with the many Matt. 27:52-53 saints who came out of their graves that same day as Christ.
#2 "AFTERWARD they that are Christ's at His coming", which Christ, Paul, and every other NT writer who spoke on these things declared would happen in that first-century generation. Daniel 12:11-13 gave us the exact day, which history can since confirm as that second resurrection event taking place on AD 70's Pentecost day.
#3 "THEN cometh the end, when He shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power." We today are awaiting for the remaining governmental structures to be put down: authority structures which God set up to restrain and punish evil. In the last judgment and third resurrection when this planet is finally purified of all human evil forever, there will be no need for such authorities any more. We at present are waiting for that next "end" point in our future.

The Only physical Resurrection unto Glorification that has taken place is CHRIST.

That isn't true. At present, ever since the bodily resurrection in AD 70 on that year's Pentecost day (which Daniel 12:11-13 predicted), every bodily-resurrected saint who had died from creation up until that 1,335th day in AD 70 was caught up to heaven with the returning Christ.

Also, the spirit and soul of every saint who has died since AD 70's resurrection also goes to be with Christ, to await the final third resurrection when their bodies also will be changed to the incorruptible and immortal state.

 

[3 Resurrections]

You are almost there, 3 Resurrections. Jesus was not to come bodily and visibly.

Sorry, I disagree that Christ abandoned His glorified, resurrected body which came out of the grave on His resurrection day. Hebrews tells us this. It is the very reason why Christ's high priesthood was made "after the order of Melchizedek". That was because Christ was unlike every other high priest who had served, who "were not suffered to continue by reason of DEATH". But THIS MAN'S high priesthood (Christ's) was characterized as "continuing EVER" in that deathless condition, just like the deathless Melchizedek.

Any return of Christ OF NECESSITY MUST include that glorified, resurrected human body form which "continueth ever". "Christ being raised from the dead dieth NO MORE; death hath NO MORE DOMINION OVER HIM." (Romans 6:9). If Christ had abandoned that glorified, resurrected human body form, it would have died a second time. Not. Even. Possible.

 

[HappyOma]

WARNING BRETHREN IN CHRIST:
The above FALSE statements propose man's FALSE theory called Full Preterism, which teaches that Jesus' 2nd coming ALREADY HAPPENED! That's why he said above Christ's bodily return in AD 70, which of course NEVER happened! He is telling LIES right here before you. Why in the world does this Forum allow such types that come here working against Lord Jesus Christ?

This "Forum" SHOULD allow it becasue it is the ONLY approach that honors the very words of Scripture--especially those of Jesus Himself.

Futurism, that denies the very words of Our Lord and Savior, is the "FALSE theory." Preterism teaches that the Second Coming has already happened because JESUS Himself placed it in the lifetime/generation of THOSE believers with Him. You yourself acknowledge that, do you not/ Do not fault preterism because so many believers cannot understand simple expressions such as "this generation" or "in a very, very little while."

Do not fault Preterism because you have a false concept of the NATURE of His coming. He was not to come "bodly and visibly." Your false contention that he must forces you to invent an unbiblical THIRD coming. Maybe THAT shouldn't be allowed on this Forum! Hebrews speaks of a first and a second coming (Heb. 9) and NO third coming.

Do not fault Preterism because YOU do not understanding the meaning of Acts 1:11. It is the CLOUDS and NOT His body that is in view there. The lie is the insistance on a bodly, visible return. I NEVER said that He returned "bodily." That is an untruth. Please acknowedge that and stop making false accusations. He came like God always came in the OT--in CLOUDS of glory, majesty, and authority. THAT was the "like manner."

Jesus said "this generation will not pass away until all these things take place" (Mat. 24:34). He meant those of HIS day. THAT is how He used that very expression EIGHTEEN other times. It is the PRETERIST who bothers to look them up. It is NOT the PRETERIST who comes "here working against Lord Jesus Christ." It is you and your denial of HIS very words and your twisting of HIS words that works against Him.

The entire NT is permeated by the truths of His coming in THAT generation. Jesus taught it; the inspired writers taught it; the people eaglrly awaited it. Yet you dare to fault the ones who actually see that.

Be careful of what you accuse others lest you find yourself the one guilty!

 

[3 Resurrections]

The above FALSE statements propose man's FALSE theory called Full Preterism, which teaches that Jesus' 2nd coming ALREADY HAPPENED

Are you paying attention to the particular differences in my viewpoint which I am emphasizing with the Full-Preterist position being presented here? I do NOT teach that the second coming with its accompanying resurrection was supposed to be ONLY spiritual in nature, which is a hallmark of Full Preterism.

The resurrection process MOST DEFINITELY includes the resurrection of the saints' bodies out of the dust of the grave, to be changed into an immortal and incorruptible form that can literally stand in God's presence in heaven without perishing by that exposure to His utter holiness.

What I AM teaching is what the Scriptures taught: namely, that this second BODILY COMING OF CHRIST, along with a BODILY RESURRECTION of the saints actually took place in AD 70, just as Christ and every NT writer had written concerning that soon-to-come event.
Full Preterism differs with my view in that I see Scripture also teaching a future THIRD COMING, and a THIRD BODILY RESURRECTION for the last group of the saints who will have died between AD 70 and the final judgment in our future. And I would not present this view without having all the Scripture backing for it, as well as the archaeological proof that Christ already returned to the Mount of Olives back in AD 70. The proofs are there for those who take the time to do their research.

 

[HappyOma]

Sorry, I disagree that Christ abandoned His glorified, resurrected body which came out of the grave on His resurrection day. Hebrews tells us this. It is the very reason why Christ's high priesthood was made "after the order of Melchizedek". That was because Christ was unlike every other high priest who had served, who "were not suffered to continue by reason of DEATH". But THIS MAN'S high priesthood (Christ's) was characterized as "continuing EVER" in that deathless condition, just like the deathless Melchizedek.

Any return of Christ OF NECESSITY MUST include that glorified, resurrected human body form which "continueth ever". "Christ being raised from the dead dieth NO MORE; death hath NO MORE DOMINION OVER HIM." (Romans 6:9). If Christ had abandoned that glorified, resurrected human body form, it would have died a second time. Not. Even. Possible.

Christ's physical body, like our physical body, came from the dust. No one who believes is His human nature would deny that. But He went into heaven in a "glorified body." The physical body, according to Paul itself, is the "seed" that falls into the ground and DIES. THAT which comes forth is NOT like the seed. The physical body is very good, but it is a vehicle for this realm only. We need to navigate this reality with a body of flesh and bone. But that is not needed in heaven and it is not fitted for heaven. What is glorified is that which comes forth from the seed (which dies and remains in the ground). The man Jesus and we are NOT our bodies. What lives on is that new creaetion within that body. Christ "continued as High Priest forever in His non-physical, glorified body.

You misunderstand the DEATH which Jeus came to overcome. It was not physical else why should ANYONE ever die physically after the cross. He came to overcome the death Adam brought when He sinned against God. That DEATH came immediately at the time of his sinning. It was not physical. It was separation from God--a loss of spiritual connection to Him. We are raised up to newness of life and not to newness of a overhauled physical body.

 

[ScottA]

I didn't say that the sickness was apostasy. My point is that too many Christians do not know how to study the Bible and rely heavily upon the heretical system developed by John Nelson Darby in the mid-1800s. That false paradigm was picked up in the 1900s by men like C. I. Scofield through his woefully inaccurate and misleading notes in his study Bible (The Scofield Study Bible). The horrendous errors wove their way during the reise of the Bible College movement and indoctrinated many unsuspecting believers.

Those egregious, God-dishonoring errors have poisoned the minds of many over the years--and continue to do so. This poisoning was reinforced by the groundless, unbiblical, lies found in the books written by Hal Lindsey and Tim LaHaye. All of this is the direct result of Christians failing to properly divide the Word of Truth. Dispensationalism is a system of disjointed Bible passages and verses--passages ripped out of their contexts in order to create a "doctrine." Doctrines are to be discovered, not invented.

When believers refuse to look at the force of simple expressions such as "this generation" and clear writings such as "In a very, very little while" because they have been conditioned to impose their dispensational theories upon every text, what hope is there of finding truth?

Case in point? No one in this thread has honestly and skillfully EXEGETED Hebrews 10:37. What IS exegesis? It is an analytical look at a passage in its context, paying careful attention to the intent of the writer, the identity of the writer, the historical setting of the writer, the audience to whom he is writing, the language that is used, etc. It involves possibly cross-referencing other passages that might employ the same language.

Everyone here, in a typical approach, has engaged in EISEGESIS instead of EXEGESIS. Eisegesis is the reading of preconceived ideas into the text that might very well not be there at all!

The church is sick because She continues to hope for that which She always has.

You are still avoiding the text. I will assume that you do not know how to exegete it.

That is good--I compliment you.

However, then you violate the same principle. A little leaven leavens the whole lump. You include yourself in the eisegesis by elevating "the clear writings", supposing them to be "clear" when it is written that they are not, but are purposely confused by God. This is what I have been speaking to. But you too continue to hope for that which you have believed. Which will continue as long as you hold fast to it. If you yourself refuse to look at the force--the actual Force of the scriptures, and do not consider the actual foretold finish of the mystery of God, you too will only awaken to it in your passing.

But are you even willing to press through to the finish?

 

[HappyOma]

That is good--I compliment you.

However, then you violate the same principle. A little leaven leavens the whole lump. You include yourself in the eisegesis by elevating "the clear writings", supposing them to be "clear" when it is written that they are not, but are purposely confused by God. This is what I have been speaking to. But you too continue to hope for that which you have believed. Which will continue as long as you hold fast to it. If you yourself refuse to look at the force--the actual Force of the scriptures, and do not consider the actual foretold finish of the mystery of God, you too will only awaken to it in your passing.

But are you even willing to press through to the finish?

EXEGETE THE VERSE!

 

[Behold]

What is the meaning, in context, of Hebrews 10;37?

If all you have are opinions not related to the text, do not waste my time and MY thread.

Hebrews 10:37 is a quote from Habakkuk chapter 2., and is a reference to Christ's Return.

The reason it seems delayed , is because we all exist on a TIME Clock that is tic tic ticking the 200O yrs that have passed.
Thats a long time to a human who might live to be 80.
So, to us,.. who exist in mortal bodies with the time clock ticking away the moments of our life..... it seems like a long Delay, regarding Christ's return......but to God, who is not on our time Clock.. there is no delay.
You can say that God is '"right on time".. always, and Jesus is coming soon for His BRIDE.

 

[David in NJ]

No, Paul taught that there were three of those resurrection events. He presented this in 1 Cor. 15:23-24. Each of these resurrection events would happen in a particular "order". The Greek word Paul used there was "tagmati", which has the connotation of the ranked military order of a procession of soldiers. One after the other taking place in sequence of time.

#1 "Christ the First-fruits" in AD 33, along with the many Matt. 27:52-53 saints who came out of their graves that same day as Christ.
#2 "AFTERWARD they that are Christ's at His coming", which Christ, Paul, and every other NT writer who spoke on these things declared would happen in that first-century generation. Daniel 12:11-13 gave us the exact day, which history can since confirm as that second resurrection event taking place on AD 70's Pentecost day.
#3 "THEN cometh the end, when He shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power." We today are awaiting for the remaining governmental structures to be put down: authority structures which God set up to restrain and punish evil. In the last judgment and third resurrection when this planet is finally purified of all human evil forever, there will be no need for such authorities any more. We at present are waiting for that next "end" point in our future.

1 Corinthians is speaking of the ONE and ONLY physical Resurrection unto Glorification in CHRIST = Christ the Firstfruits
AFTERWARD = those who belong to Christ at His Second Coming

 

[3 Resurrections]

Christ "continued as High Priest forever in His non-physical, glorified body.

Wrong. Christ's body in heaven at present is the same post-resurrection, tangible body form which He invited the disciples to touch and handle, and see. Christ's glorified body which came out of the grave, leaving nothing behind in the tomb, is the same glorified body which is in heaven today, serving as our Mediator before the Father. "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men: the MAN Christ Jesus". Of necessity, it behooved Him to be made like unto His brethren, so that He could be a merciful and faithful high priest. Like must represent like. If Christ is not presently in his glorified, resurrected human body form in heaven, then you and I have no mediator before God's throne, and our faith is in vain.

Matthew 24:30 was Christ's identity as "the SON OF MAN" who was going to return in AD 70 - i.e. in that same glorified, resurrected body form which went into heaven in Acts 1.

You misunderstand the DEATH which Jeus came to overcome. It was not physical else why should ANYONE ever die physically after the cross. He came to overcome the death Adam brought when He sinned against God. That DEATH came immediately at the time of his sinning. It was not physical. It was separation from God--a loss of spiritual connection to Him. We are raised up to newness of life and not to newness of a overhauled physical body.

Christ came to take care of the problem of every vile effect which death brought upon the human race. Physical death AND spiritual death. It's not just one or the other. It's both. The physical bodies of mankind became victimized by the side effects of the spiritual death separation from God. No life of any kind can persist forever without God's sustaining, life-inducing presence.

We die physically AFTER the cross because God promised that "as in Adam ALL DIE" - death of every kind. God MUST make good on His own statements. "In the day that ye eat of it, dying, ye shall die" became true of every person who has descended from Adam. But if individuals are "IN CHRIST", they will be made alive eternally - life of every kind - not just given eternal spiritual life, but also a change to an immortal, incorruptible restored life condition of the very dust they were composed of.

 

[ScottA]

EXEGETE THE VERSE!

I did in post #5. But okay, perhaps a more classic approach:

Hebrews 10:37 “For yet a little while, And He who is coming will come and will not tarry."​

A "little while" was indeed simply: a little while. "He who is coming" is God--not the Son of God, for He was flesh and blood, and He does not return in flesh and blood again, but "in the glory of the Father" (Matthew 16:27), which is to say: in Spirit. "And will not tarry" confirms that "a little while" was indeed a little while, i.e., "soon" thereafter.

Which began at Pentecost, not as all people in mass or by group--as many have believed would occur, but as Paul stated: "but each one in his own order." "One" meaning each "individual." Which would occur during the church age "until the times of the gentiles are fulfilled"--"then comes the end."

 

[Davy]

This "Forum" SHOULD allow it becasue it is the ONLY approach that honors the very words of Scripture--especially those of Jesus Himself.

The doctrines of men called FULL PRETERISM, which wrongly believes Jesus' 2nd coming was already history is a teaching from NUTS, goes directly against the written Bible Scripture, and should ONLY be allowed on a PAGAN forum, because those are the ones behind such a false teaching.

 

[Davy]

Be careful of what you accuse others lest you find yourself the one guilty!

I don't ever... have to worry about rebuking someone like you with the false doctrines you come here pushing. God's written Word is very clearly against the false FULL PRETERIST ideas you have come here trying to push.

 

[3 Resurrections]

1 Corinthians is speaking of the ONE and ONLY physical Resurrection unto Glorification in CHRIST = Christ the Firstfruits
AFTERWARD = those who belong to Christ at His Second Coming

No, Scriptures NEVER write about a so-called "one and only" resurrection event. There is a particular agricultural reason for Christ being called the "First-fruits". That was a reference to the first harvest in Israel at Passover. Leviticus 23:10-12 describes a joint offering of a sheaf handful of First-fruits of the barley harvest at Passover - which was offered in the temple along WITH a single he-lamb of the first year without blemish. The Matthew 27:52-53 resurrected saints were the 144,000 "First-fruits unto God and the Lamb", raised on that same day that Christ arose. They were the fulfillment of the sheaf handful of barley grain offered in the temple, and Christ was the fulfillment of the single He-Lamb without blemish. Offered together on the same day.

But we also have "AFTERWARD" (as in 1 Cor. 15:23) the next wheat harvest coming 50 days later at Pentecost in Leviticus 23:15-16. This was a picture which foretold the AD 70 harvest of the wheat and the tares (the resurrection of the just and the unjust, which Paul said was "about to be" in Acts 24:15). That second resurrection event happened on AD 70's Pentecost day, (according to Daniel 12:11-13's prediction of that resurrection day).

 

[HappyOma]

Hebrews 10:37 is a quote from Habakkuk chapter 2., and is a reference to Christ's Return.

The reason it seems delayed , is because we all exist on a TIME Clock that is tic tic ticking the 200O yrs that have passed.
Thats a long time to a human who might live to be 80.
So, to us,.. who exist in mortal bodies with the time clock ticking away the moments of our life..... it seems like a long Delay, regarding Christ's return......but to God, who is not on our time Clock.. there is no delay.
You can say that God is '"right on time".. always, and Jesus is coming soon for His BRIDE.

It does not "seem delayed." It IS delayed, Behold. "Hope deferred makes the heart sick" (Prov. 13:12).

The writer of Hebrews said "In a VERY, VERY LITTLE WHILE." That meant in their day that His coming would NOT be delayed.

What is the CONTEXT of Habakkuk 2, Behold? This deals with the destruction of Jerusalem by the Babylonians. That was 3-5 years off 586 B. C.). Habakkuk was growing impatient for what had been foretold concerning his people, just like the recipients of Peter's letters were as they waited for the Lord's promised return to them (2 Peter 3). God assured Habakkuk that though it might SEEM to be delayed--it would NOT be delayed. The day of the Lord was not delayed in Habakkuk's day and it was not delayed in the day of the writer of Hebrews. He was coming in a "very, very litle while." And He did. How could he have stated it any clearer?

 

[Exegesis]

I literally quoted the verse that came right before the one you quoted, and you have the audacity to claim:

That is not the context--not even close.

That makes you a liar.

The emphasis of the Book of Hebrews is CHRIST...

The whole Bible is about Christ.

HE was coming a second time "in a very, very little while" without DELAY."

OK, and again, assuming the verse is about Christ, you have been given multiple interpretations. Proper exegesis would leave it there and allow the student to form their own conclusion. You have zero authority to claim that *your* interpretation is the only valid one.

There is absolutely no justification for missing this and forcing it to mean mere "individuals."

And yet I gave you proof and reference verses.

That approach has no contextual support whatsoever.

Except it does. The context is about either receiving Salvation after death, or receiving damnation.

Go back and read:

Hebrews 10:39 - "But we are not of them who draw back unto perdition; but of them that believe to the saving of the soul."

"draw back unto perdition" = Damnation
"saving of the soul" = Salvation

You have a lot of nerve telling me that the above is not context.

Sadly, you approach Matthew 24:44 the very same way. It, too, is about the COMING OF CHRIST.

Again, the 'coming of Christ' can mean several things as others have noted. You need to leave it there and let others choose for themselves. Quit being a dictator.

Exegesis, what exactly are your principles of "exegesis"?

For starters:

#1 Listen to your critics
#2 Allow yourself to be corrected
#3 Stop lying

Your attitude is a bit extreme for me, so I am bowing out of this thread. Good luck.