I'll ask again:I don't mind your apology about the manna. I am mentioning Jesus' own words. You need to accept what he said, not question it.
Do you believe Jesus was a flesh Son of Man in Heaven before his birth?
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I'll ask again:I don't mind your apology about the manna. I am mentioning Jesus' own words. You need to accept what he said, not question it.
And I answer you again:I'll ask again:
Do you believe Jesus was a flesh Son of Man in Heaven before his birth?
Did you know that before humans existed, there were already millions of sons of God in heaven? You just have to understand that reality, and you'll see how easy it is to see who Jesus was as the first and most important among them. It's that simple.Do you think the sons of God mentioned here are flesh sons of God?
Job 38:4 Where were you when I founded the earth?
Tell me, if you think you understand.
5 Who set its measurements, in case you know,
Or who stretched a measuring line across it?
6 Into what were its pedestals sunk,
Or who laid its cornerstone,
7 When the morning stars joyfully cried out together,
And all the sons of God began shouting in applause?
I'll take your reluctance to answer as a no then.And I answer you again:
Did you know that before humans existed, there were already millions of sons of God in heaven? You just have to understand that reality, and you'll see how easy it is to see who Jesus was as the first and most important among them. It's that simple.
Are the sons of God who live with him in heaven before humans were created, made of flesh? You can't seem to accept that it's so easy to understand the existence of sons of God who live in heaven, and that Jesus (although not by that name) was already among them before being born as a human.I'll take your reluctance to answer as a no then.
The key to understanding John 6 lies in the “bread from heaven” analogy. You miss the point by comparing Christ to angelic beings in heaven, yet angels are not flesh-and-blood creatures, nor do they share Christ’s unique origin. The Lord’s teaching, however, is rooted in the reality that true life comes from the Spirit, not the flesh (John 6:63).Are the sons of God who live with him in heaven before humans were created, made of flesh? You can't seem to accept that it's so easy to understand the existence of sons of God who live in heaven, and that Jesus (although not by that name) was already among them before being born as a human.
I find it amusing how you have fun trying to evade the facts presented to you. That's not apologetics for the truth, but self-deception to keep you in the lie.
Can you see your error?When Jesus is identified as the Son of Man (from Dan. 7:13, 14), what is being done is to identify a Son of God who became human to obtain the kingdom. Someone who has not been a human being cannot reign over humans.
Jesus, as Son of Man, was the offspring of the woman in Gen. 3:15. This does not contradict His preexistence at all.
It's interesting that Luke 3 would have applied Psa 2:7 to Jesus' baptism, but in Acts it's also Luke that attributes it to His resurrection.
I explain these incongruences by accepting that the NT authors played fast-and-loose with their "fulfillments" of the OT.
I wonder how you explain it?
You are halfway there Elie in accepting the context - not far to go.Evading and more evading. Tired of your evading, only good night is left. I won't keep myself trying to reason to a person who doesn't mind even what Jesus said. It's practically like trying to reason with @Wick Stick when he didn't even believe that the Bible is all inspired.
Accept Jesus' teaching, for your own good. Good night.
A "standing up" to preach after the baptism is completely plausible. But it just doesn't seem to belong to Acts 13. Acts 13 seems to me to be fixed solely on Jesus' resurrection.I see that as a clause or break in the context which then reverts right back to the discussion concerning the rising from the dead. Two important similarly employed words are at play, G1453 ἐγείρω, (egeiro), and G450 ἀνίστημι, (anistemi), and I believe they mark a slight, temporary diversion from the topic of the resurrection within the overall flow of the passage.
30 ο δε θεος ηγειρεν αυτον εκ νεκρων
30 But Elohim awakened-raised him from the dead
33 οτι ταυτην ο θεος εκπεπληρωκεν τοις τεκνοις ημων αναστησας Ι̅Η ως και εν τω ψαλμω γεγραπται τω δευτερω υιος μου ει συ εγω σημερον γεγεννηκα σε
αναστησας Ι̅Η ~ (in that) He (ο θεος) raised up / stood up Ι̅Η (to preach the Gospel, that is, from the beginning of his ministry following his immersion, (and testing in the wilderness)).
Then the passage continues concerning the resurrection:
34 οτι δε ανεστησεν αυτον εκ νεκρων μηκετι μελλοντα υποστρεφειν εις διαφθοραν ουτως ειρηκεν οτι δωσω υμιν τα οσια δαυιδ τα πιστα
οτι δε ανεστησεν αυτον εκ νεκρων
But (concerning) that He raised him from the dead.......
Extremely technical: watch out for Paul!
That's fair criticism. I DON'T believe ALL the Bible is inspired. I only attribute inspiration to the prophets, gospels, and Psalms. That turns out to be most of the Bible, but still...It's... like trying to reason with @Wick Stick when he didn't even believe that the Bible is all inspired.
On purpose I believe - what are we to have faith in? A book or the God who arranged it. Inspiration is a test of faith...no doubt about this.That's fair criticism. I DON'T believe ALL the Bible is inspired.
A "standing up" to preach after the baptism is completely plausible. But it just doesn't seem to belong to Acts 13. Acts 13 seems to me to be fixed solely on Jesus' resurrection.
I would LIKE to believe it. My current understanding (Luke contradicts himself by applying the same passage to multiple events) is one that I find troubling.
Obviously, God above anyone else.On purpose I believe - what are we to have faith in? A book or the God who arranged it. Inspiration is a test of faith...no doubt about this.
@Wick Stick as you rightly stated earlier this Psalm presented as a prophecy to be proclaimed at the Lord’s installation as “king upon the holy hill of Zion.” Such an exalted position could only belong to one who was “made strong” for Yahweh (Psa 80:17), who fully revealed the divine character in human flesh (Jn 1:14), and who was delivered from death to receive divine nature (Heb 5:7, which also cites Psa. 2:7).Acts 13:30-33 ASV
30 But God raised him from the dead:
31 and he was seen for many days of them that came up with him from Galilee to Jerusalem, who are now his witnesses unto the people.
32 And we bring you good tidings of the promise made unto the fathers,
33 that God hath fulfilled the same unto our children, in that he raised up Jesus; as also it is written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.
Hebrews 5:4-5 ASV
4 And no man taketh the honor unto himself, but when he is called of God, even as was Aaron.
5 So Christ also glorified not himself to be made a high priest, but he that spake unto him, Thou art my Son, This day have I begotten thee:
Where is it written anywhere in the modern N/T that the Father said these words to the Anointed One? For one, it is still found in Codex Bezae, and for two, there is also suspicious evidence that it was in the original Hebrew Matthew and was removed by Jerome who confesses to have rendered that Hebrew text, (or possibly Aramaic), into both Greek and Latin. This decree, spoken by the Father to the Meshiah at his immersion, was a thorn in the side of the RCC eternal Son doctrine because they did not understand the Nomina Sacra.
The Bible seems pretty clear to me that He is already ruling. Eph 4, 1Cor 15, etc@Wick Stick as you rightly stated earlier this Psalm presented as a prophecy to be proclaimed at the Lord’s installation as “king upon the holy hill of Zion.” Such an exalted position could only belong to one who was “made strong” for Yahweh (Psa 80:17), who fully revealed the divine character in human flesh (Jn 1:14), and who was delivered from death to receive divine nature (Heb 5:7, which also cites Psa. 2:7).
Although Christ has already been appointed to this supreme role, his formal enthronement is still to come.
Nature is a strange word choice, because of how Paul (his translators) use it. I think you're talking about οὐσία... is that right?It must be acknowledged that Christ, during his life on earth, possessed only one nature, flesh and blood.
I'm with you here. A spiritual body still involves a body. It's not dis-embodied.Through his resurrection and exaltation, however, he was granted immortality, receiving the divine nature (flesh and spirit).
I use the expression “flesh and spirit” because, in his glorified state, the Lord could still be touched by those who encountered him.
Put me in that category, too. "Life" is/was a strange word choice. The history of usage for ζάω or ζῷον is all over the place, and adding αἰώνιος does not make it clearer.Christians generally have a poor understanding of Divine Nature which the record calls "Life".
This would seem to put the "begetting" at Jesus' resurrection. Am I reading you correctly?Here it is in total clarity
1 John 1:1–2 That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life 2 the life (eternal) was made manifest, and we have seen it, and testify to it and proclaim to you the eternal life (divine nature), which was with the Father and was made manifest to us.
It's impossible for a person to be begotten of the Father and not be in possession of eternal divine nature.
No flesh (and blood) can glory in His presence! 1 Corinthians 1:29
If you believe Jesus did not receive LIFE from God then you must also believe he is not begotten of the Father.
He is not yet sitting on Davids's throne - you would know it if he was!The Bible seems pretty clear to me that He is already ruling. Eph 4, 1Cor 15, etc
A single flesh and blood nature - Paul refers to this in Romans 8:1-3 styled "sins flesh" and later we read of Christ being crucified in weakness and we being weak in him. 2 Corinthians 13:4Nature is a strange word choice, because of how Paul (his translators) use it. I think you're talking about οὐσία... is that right?
Absolutely!I'm with you here. A spiritual body still involves a body. It's not dis-embodied.
Read 1 John - perfectly clear how John uses the word, Life.Put me in that category, too. "Life" is/was a strange word choice. The history of usage for ζάω or ζῷον is all over the place, and adding αἰώνιος does not make it clearer.
Death = total cessation of lifeIn the NT, I often take life to be used in opposition to "death" - not the literal one but the figurative usage, indicating those outside the church/Israel.
This would seem to put the "begetting" at Jesus' resurrection. Am I reading you correctly?
The natural birth of Jesus was a momentous event, fulfilling numerous prophecies. Yet the child was born into a fallen, condemned race and experienced firsthand the full effects of sin in his aging and suffering human body. As Paul teaches, it was not until the Holy Spirit declared Jesus to be the Son of God with power (Romans 1:4) that he fully manifested the divine image and likeness of God.This would seem to put the "begetting" at Jesus' resurrection. Am I reading you correctly?