As discussed previously i consider the there is a gap between the comments and for me the weight of scripturing show that the last part of the passage refers to the destruction of the the earth prior to the creation of new heaven and new earth.
But, there is no indication whatsoever in the text that the destruction of the earth occurs long after the arrival of the day of the Lord. How exactly are you coming up with that interpretation? Paul wrote about the same event of the day of the Lord coming as a thief in the night in 1 Thessalonians 5:2-3 and said it will bring "sudden destruction" from which those in spiritual darkness "shall not escape". Do you try to say that the "sudden destruction" that Paul referenced in relation to the day of the Lord happens long after the day of the Lord arrives the way you do with 2 Peter 3:10-13?
2 Peter 3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night, in which the heavens will pass away with a great noise, and the elements will melt with fervent heat; both the earth and the works that are in it will be burned up. 11 Therefore, since all these things will be dissolved, what manner
of persons ought you to be in holy conduct and godliness, 12 looking for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be dissolved, being on fire, and the elements will melt with fervent heat?
Notice what Peter said after saying that the heavens will be dissolved, the elements will melt with fervent heart and the earth will be burned up. He said in direct relation to that destruction: "Therefore, since all these things will be dissolved, what manner
of persons ought you to be in holy conduct and godliness, looking for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be dissolved, being on fire, and the elements will melt with fervent heat?". By saying to his readers to think about what kind of people they are and about their behavior, he was implying that the destruction he described could occur in their lifetimes. Surely, he wasn't just writing to people who would need to heed his words long after Jesus comes as a thief in the night. That would make no sense. No, he was talking to everyone reading his words before Jesus comes as a thief in the night and saying that we need to make sure that His wrath and the destruction He brings when He comes doesn't come against us. So, by having the destruction Peter described not occurring until long after Jesus comes as a thief in the night is a case of taking the passage completely out of context.
This is the result of a localised battle in that region, the battle of Armageedon. All those involved are killed not the whole world.
Otherwise, in the plain reading of Rev 20, and Rev 5.10, Rev 2.26+ Who are Jesus and the saints ruling over, Theres got be others who aren't killed. Zech 14.16+ indicates a similar result. Then all the survivors of the nations that came against Jerusalem etc.
You talk about the plain reading of text in the most highly symbolic book in all of scripture. I don't understand at all why anyone would assume any given text in the book is literal. I'm not saying there is nothing literal in the book, but there is a great deal of symbolism, so why assume any given verse or passage is literal?
You think Armageddon is a literal earthly place. Is that what you think about mystery Babylon as well, that it refers to a literal place on earth? Is that what you think of the reference to Magog in Revelation 20, that it's referring to a literal place somewhere on earth?