IF YOU THINK MATTHEW 24:29-30 WAS FULFILLED IN 70AD PLEASE SHOW ME WHY

[HealthyShape]

Pay attention.

There are about 30 extant K.Grk Texts.

All bibles other then the MaryCult bible are made from them.

The Received Text, is the most accurate, and it created the KJV and many other bibles.
Nestle used it for a very long time....and then they stopped and now what they use, is inferior.
The NIV is taken fron that inferior Nestle-Aland Greek.

Now, just pass on the faux argument that tries to use "well scholarship says".. as in fact, this is all divided.....and its a useless argument.

The fruit of a Bible is one of the main proofs of the Bible's anointing from God.

If you knew anything about Church History, you would know that all the Major Worldwide Revivals started under the preaching of a KJV Bible, and almost every notable Preacher, Teacher or Evangelist, was called into the ministry under the preaching and teaching of a KJV.

The NIV is a theologically confused piese of religious trash that causes Christians to not learn doctrine, because the NIV omits verse, and changes the context of doctrine.



I suppose you'll be tellilng us next that "only the originals" , the "original greek" are trustworty.
So, let me stop you there, as there is no such thing as an origianal K.Grk NT Text.

There is no point in continuing this conversation, you are not interested in knowledge, you want to just push your weird agenda...

Your argumentation is not scientific/textual, but "the past revivals used the KJV" and such. I am not interested in terms like "MaryCult bible" etc.

 

[Behold]

There is no point in continuing this conversation, you are not interested in knowledge, you want to just push your weird agenda...

I suppose you'll be tellilng us next that "only the originals" , the "original greek" ..is/are trustworthy.
= (Face-Palm)
So, let me stop you there before you hurt yourself..., as there is no such thing as an original K.Grk NT Text.

Your argumentation is not scientific/textual,

Now, just pass on the faux argument that tries to use "well scholarship says".. as in fact, this is all divided.....and its a useless rabbit trail argument for kiddies.

The NIV is a theologically confused piese of religious TRASH. that causes Christians to not learn doctrine, because the NIV omits verses, and changes the context of doctrine, throughout.

 

[HealthyShape]

@Behold ignored.

 

[Behold]

@Behold ignored.

Just remember. @HealthyShape

If you are going to try to "HATE" the KJV.....then you have to deal with this reality....

= The FRUIT of a Bible is one of the main proofs of the Bible's anointing from God.

Now, If you actually knew anything about more recent Church History, you would know that all the Major Worldwide Revivals started under the preaching of a KJV Bible, and almost every notable Preacher, Teacher or Evangelist, was called into the ministry under the preaching and teaching of a KJV.

Now are there other good bibles.?
Of course, and i use a few different versions.
However, i check all "new" versions by comparing them with the KJV.

 

[Doug]

Who is Israel to whom the promises are made? Is it the ethnic race, physical sons/daughters of Abraham's many seeds, or is it the believing/faithful race. sons/daughters of Abraham's spiritual Seed (Christ)?

[Jer 31:31 KJV] 31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
It says it was made with the house of Israel and Judah

This will be implemented after the tribulation and I see only true believing Israel being saved in it

 

[Doug]

Any bible that is created using the revised or newer "Nestlle" text has issues.
Previously and for a long time Nestle used the "Textus Receptus" that created the original KJV....but now they use a different Greek text and its not as accurate.

Thanks very much

 

[Doug]

I use the KJV to check other translations for both verse accuracy and doctrinal accuracy.
Most fail the test but not all.
The NIV is one of the worst fails.

Interesting
I think the Alexandrian texts are a problem as well

 

[HealthyShape]

@Doug you did not answer if you are also a flat earther.

 

[rwb]

[Jer 31:31 KJV] 31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
It says it was made with the house of Israel and Judah

This will be implemented after the tribulation and I see only true believing Israel being saved in it

You don't believe Christ has already come (first advent) to establish the New Covenant through His cross & resurrection?

Hebrews 8:8-11 (KJV) For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord. For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people: And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.

Paul shows us the Israel of God the New Covenant is given to. Israel of God is NOT only those of the circumcision (Jews), but also with the uncircumcision (Gentiles), they are all Israel that shall be saved.

Galatians 6:15-16 (KJV) For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creature. And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God.

 

[Doug]

@Doug you did not answer if you are also a flat earther.

Did you want to discuss some scripture?

 

[HealthyShape]

Did you want to discuss some scripture?

The context was about literally rolling the heavens and literally falling stars. You gave such a strange response that is seems you are a flat earther. Are you? I am asking for the third time...

 

[Doug]

You don't believe Christ has already come (first advent) to establish the New Covenant through His cross & resurrection?

Hebrews 8:8-11 (KJV) For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord. For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people: And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.

Paul shows us the Israel of God the New Covenant is given to. Israel of God is NOT only those of the circumcision (Jews), but also with the uncircumcision (Gentiles), they are all Israel that shall be saved.

Galatians 6:15-16 (KJV) For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creature. And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God.

Jesus shed his blood for the remission of sins for the new testament. His death put in force the new testament for Israel.

There is a difference between a testament and a covenant. Jesus had to shed his blood to enable the implementation of the new covenant. When the new covenant is put in force one of the things God will do for Israel is to forgive the sins of the believing nation of Israel and this requires the shed blood of Christ.

 

[rwb]

Jesus shed his blood for the remission of sins for the new testament. His death put in force the new testament for Israel.

There is a difference between a testament and a covenant. Jesus had to shed his blood to enable the implementation of the new covenant. When the new covenant is put in force one of the things God will do for Israel is to forgive the sins of the believing nation of Israel and this requires the shed blood of Christ.

The shed blood of Christ is for the remission of sin for ALL who are of faith in Him

The Old Testament, through the Law and Prophets declares the Promised One would come and whosoever of Old believed, looked forward in faith to the Promised One Who was to come. He came, His name is Jesus Christ, our Lord and Saviour! The New Covenant has been in force, and able to save whosoever (both Jew & Gentile) believes in Him, they are the "Israel of God"! Not an ethnic people called Israel after the flesh, but a spiritual people from every nation, tribe, kindred and tongue.

Galatians 3:26-29 (KJV) For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, (Gentile) there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

Colossians 3:10-11 (KJV) And have put on the new man, which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him: Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.

 

[rwb]

Jesus shed his blood for the remission of sins for the new testament. His death put in force the new testament for Israel.

There is a difference between a testament and a covenant. Jesus had to shed his blood to enable the implementation of the new covenant. When the new covenant is put in force one of the things God will do for Israel is to forgive the sins of the believing nation of Israel and this requires the shed blood of Christ.

There is no difference between the two words. Both speak of promise of God to save whosoever believes through Christ the mediator of a better testament/covenant.

Hebrews 7:22 (KJV) By so much was Jesus made a surety of a better testament.

Hebrews 8:6 (KJV) But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.

 

[Doug]

There is no difference between the two words. Both speak of promise of God to save whosoever believes through Christ the mediator of a better testament/covenant.

Hebrews 7:22 (KJV) By so much was Jesus made a surety of a better testament.

Hebrews 8:6 (KJV) But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.

Jesus was mediator of both the new covenant and the new testament

 

[rwb]

Jesus was mediator of both the new covenant and the new testament

Doug, the New Covenant is the New Testament. Both speak of Christ the Messiah giving His life to make atonement for sin, and resurrecting from the dead that mankind might live forever.

 

[Doug]

Doug, the New Covenant is the New Testament. Both speak of Christ the Messiah giving His life to make atonement for sin, and resurrecting from the dead that mankind might live forever.

A testament is the last will of a person. It requires the death of the testator to be in force.................[Heb 9:16 KJV] 16 For where a testament [is], there must also of necessity be the death of the testator..................Jesus stated his last will..............[Mat 26:28 KJV] 28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
Jesus died to forgive the sins Israel committed under the first testament....................[Heb 9:15 KJV] 15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions [that were] under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

A covenant does not require death. It is an agreement between parties or a promise made by one party.
In the new covenant there is no shedding of blood or death. that was furnished by Christ's new testament death and blood
The new covenant will cause Israel to keep his law.........................[Eze 36:27 KJV] 27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do [them].

 

[rwb]

A testament is the last will of a person. It requires the death of the testator to be in force.................[Heb 9:16 KJV] 16 For where a testament [is], there must also of necessity be the death of the testator..................Jesus stated his last will..............[Mat 26:28 KJV] 28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
Jesus died to forgive the sins Israel committed under the first testament....................[Heb 9:15 KJV] 15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions [that were] under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

A covenant does not require death. It is an agreement between parties or a promise made by one party.
In the new covenant there is no shedding of blood or death. that was furnished by Christ's new testament death and blood
The new covenant will cause Israel to keep his law.........................[Eze 36:27 KJV] 27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do [them].

When was the testament through the testator in force? Jesus died to forgive sins of the whole world, that's when the Testament/New Covenant became of force.

1 John 2:2 (KJV) And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

That does not mean the whole world (all humanity) shall be saved. Though the blood of Christ had atoned for ALL sin, only those in the world who believe shall be, are eternally saved.

John 3:16-18 (KJV) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

 

[Doug]

When was the testament through the testator in force? Jesus died to forgive sins of the whole world, that's when the Testament/New Covenant became of force.

1 John 2:2 (KJV) And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

That does not mean the whole world (all humanity) shall be saved. Though the blood of Christ had atoned for ALL sin, only those in the world who believe shall be, are eternally saved.

John 3:16-18 (KJV) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

Yes when Jesus died the new testament was put in force. Jesus died to forgive the sins committed under the first testament. It was not revealed until Paul that his death and shed blood of the new testament was applied to us......................[Heb 9:15 KJV] 15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions [that were] under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

You quoted John 3:16. Now here in John nothing has been made known that Jesus was going to die on the cross to forgive Israel. John 3:16 says nothing about his death. Read v18.........................[Jhn 3:18 KJV] 18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God..................Israel had to believe on his name for salvation, They had to believe he was the Christ the Son of God

 

[claninja]

Well,

View attachment 71565

Matt 12:39 has the same Greek word as found in Matt 24:34 and it has no association with descendant generation that you are suggesting for Mat 24:34
Below is a sample of how Mat 12 39 has been translated in a number of versions: -

View attachment 71567

While Thayer's Lexicon defines Matthew 24:34's usage of genea to mean "the whole multitude of men living at the same time", I'm not really sure where you are getting genea to mean age as in "a thousand years", since Thayer's Lexicon defines genea as age to mean " an age (i. e. the time ordinarily occupied by each successive generation), the space of from 30 to 33 years "

• STRONGS NT 1074: γενεά
• 
  
• γενεά, γενεάς, ἡ (ΓΑΝΩ, γίνομαι (crf. Curtius, p. 610)); the Sept. often for דּור; in Greek writings from Homer down;
• 1. a begetting, birth, nativity: Herodotus 3, 33; Xenophon, Cyril 1, 2, 8, etc.; (others make the collective sense the primary significance, see Curtius as above).
• 
  
• 2. passively, that which has been begotten, men of the same stock, a family;
• 
  
• a. properly, as early as Homer; equivalent to מִשְׁפָּחַה, Genesis 31:3, etc. σῴζειν Ρ᾽αχαβην καί τήν γενεάν αὐτῆς, Josephus, Antiquities 5, 1, 5. the several ranks in a natural descent, the successive members of a genealogy: Matthew 1:17 (ἑβδόμῃ γενεά οὗτος ἐστιν ἀπό τοῦ πρώτου, Philo, vit. Moys. i. § 2).
• 
  
• b. metaphorically, a race of men very like each other in endowments, pursuits, character; and especially in a bad sense a perverse race: Matthew 17:17; Mark 9:19; Luke 9:41; Luke 16:8; (Acts 2:40).
• 
  
• 3. the whole multitude of men living at the same time: Matthew 24:34; Mark 13:30; Luke 1:48 (πᾶσαι αἱ γενεαί); ; Philippians 2:15; used especially of the Jewish race living at one and the same period: Matthew 11:16; Matthew 12:39, 41f, 45; Matthew 16:4; Matthew 23:36; Mark 8:12, 38; Luke 11:29f, 32, 50; Luke 17:25; Acts 13:36; Hebrews 3:10; ἄνθρωποι τῆς γενεάς ταύτης, Luke 7:31; ἄνδρες τῆς γενεάς ταύτης, Luke 11:31; τήν δέ γενεάν αὐτοῦ τίς διηγήσεται, who can describe the wickedness of the present generation, Acts 8:33 (from Isaiah 53:8 the Sept.) (but cf. Meyer, at the passage).
• 
  
• 4. an age (i. e. the time ordinarily occupied by each successive generation), the space of from 30 to 33 years (Herodotus 2, 142, et al.; Heraclitus in Plutarch, def. orac. c. 11), or ὁ χρόνος, ἐν ᾧ γεννωντα παρέχει τόν ἐξ αὐτοῦ γεγεννημένον ὁ γεννησας (Plutarch, the passage cited); in the N. T. common in plural: Ephesians 3:5 (Winers Grammar, § 31, 9 a.; Buttmann, 186 (161)); παρῳχημέναις γενεαῖς in ages gone by, Acts 14:16; ἀπό τῶν γενεῶν for ages, since the generations began, Colossians 1:26; ἐκ γενεῶν ἀρχαίων from the generations of old, from ancient times down, Acts 15:21; εἰς γενεάς γενεῶν unto generations of generations, through all ages, forever (a phrase which assumes that the longer ages are made up of shorter; see αἰών, 1 a.): Luke 1:50 R L (דּורִים לְדור, Isaiah 51:8); εἰς γενεάς καί γενεάς unto generations and generations, ibid. T Tr WH equivalent to וָדור לְדור, Psalm 89:2; Isaiah 34:17; very often in the Sept.; (add, εἰς πάσας τάς γενεάς τοῦ αἰῶνος τῶν αἰώνων, Ephesians 3:21, cf. Ellicott at the passage) (γενεά is used of a century in Genesis 15:16, cf. Knobel at the passage, and on the senses of the word see the full remarks of Keim, iii. 206 (v. 245 English translation)).