I will raise them on the last day.

[Marty fox]

John 6:54
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

Jesus said it all here, He will raise them on the last day, not raise them a thousand years before the last day.

 

[ProverbsInPink]

John 6:54
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

Jesus said it all here, He will raise them on the last day, not raise them a thousand years before the last day.

It's in the Bible isn't it? No one has entered Heaven except the one who descended from it?

 

[WPM]

It's in the Bible isn't it? No one has entered Heaven except the one who descended from it?

That was before His resurrection.

Always look at context and timing or else you misunderstand the message.

 

[ProverbsInPink]

That was before His resurrection.

Always look at context and timing or else you misunderstand the message.

I'm aware of context.
John 4 is still relevant in that well prior to his talking with Nicodemus countless people had died. And yet no one ascended I to Heaven except He who descended from it,the Son of Man.

 

[Aunty Jane]

John 6:54
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

Jesus said it all here, He will raise them on the last day, not raise them a thousand years before the last day.

I think it helps to understand the meaning of the word “day” as it is used in Scripture, as well as in our own everyday English....for example, we can refer to our grandfather’s “day” as a period of time, not a specific 24 hour period.
The “days” mentioned in Genesis don’t have to be 24 hour periods either which would account for the geological age of the earth. Gen 1:1 and the next verse do not have to be even in the same time frame.
If each of those “days” was thousands or even millions of years long, does it make a difference to anything that happened after the creation of Eve? The Creator is not limited by time as we are.

What other Scripture helps to explain the one you quoted?
How about Martha’s response to Jesus when he was about to raise her brother from the dead?

John 11: 20-24...
“So when Martha heard that Jesus was coming, she went and met him, but Mary remained seated in the house. Martha said to Jesus, “Lord, if you had been here, my brother would not have died. But even now I know that whatever you ask from God, God will give you.” Jesus said to her, “Your brother will rise again.” Martha said to him, “I know that he will rise again in the resurrection on the last day.” (ESV)

As close Jewish friends of Jesus, Martha was recounting what Jews believed about the dead.....they did not entertain belief in an immortal soul going somewhere else at death, but in the Jewish understanding of the resurrection. This was a return to life under the rulership of God’s Kingdom...a time yet future.
Martha reiterated her belief that her brother would “rise again in the resurrection on the last day”.

Jesus told her that he was “the resurrection and the life” and he was going to demonstrate what a resurrection meant in real life, not as something yet future for this man.

So this begs the question...where was Lazarus before Jesus called him from his tomb? If he had gone to a better place, why would Jesus bring him back to this life, only to die again from some other cause in the future? Did Lazarus mention being somewhere else? Or was it as Jesus said....

John 11:11-14...
“After saying these things, he said to them, “Our friend Lazarus has fallen asleep, but I go to awaken him.” The disciples said to him, “Lord, if he has fallen asleep, he will recover.” Now Jesus had spoken of his death, but they thought that he meant taking rest in sleep. Then Jesus told them plainly, “Lazarus has died“. (ESV)

His friend was “asleep” and he was going to “awaken” him”. This was the Jewish understanding of death....they did not entertain belief in an immortal soul because that was a pagan concept later borrowed from the Greeks.

When a person died they went to “Sheol” which is the Hebrew equivalent of the Greek “hades”....it is a place of rest...in a state of suspended animation from God’s perspective because he has promised to raise the dead back to life. (John 5:28-29) Jewish belief was that this was a restoration of life on earth. They had no expectation of going to heaven. That aspect of the Kingdom would be revealed at Pentecost, with the outpouring of the holy spirit....and only those “chosen” (elected) for that role would entertain that conviction.

So how are we to understand the verse you quoted?
“Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.”
As Jesus audience were exclusively Jewish, they understood his words from a Jewish perspective.

“The last day” then was a reference to the time of Jesus rulership, when he would raise the dead to either the reward of life...or a period of judgment, (John 5:28-29) where the dead from times past, who may not have ever heard of the true God or his son, will be given an opportunity to learn during this period of time.

Why is it called a “day”? Because as Peter said... “a thousand years is as one day” to God. (2 Pete 3:8) The thousand year reign of Jesus and his chosen ones will bring the redeemed human race back to God. What the human race lost in the beginning will be restored....what wonderful news that is for those who lived and died in ignorance, never having an opportunity to learn about their Creator.

Those alive today do not have that excuse....we have access to information about everything in this “time of the end” so those who deny Christ today will not be excused for an ignorance of choice.
They deny Jesus as sent by God to save the human race from condemnation to sin and death, inherited from Adam. And in so doing will not enjoy the life that Jesus’ sacrifice provides for those who put faith in him. (Rev 21:2-4)

Your comment...”He will raise them on the last day, not raise them a thousand years before the last day.” failed to take into account the purpose of that “last day”.
The thousand years IS the last day.....a time when, after one final test....all redeemed humanity will finally be granted the life God planned for them all along.....to enjoy everlasting life in paradise on earth.....the place he designed for us to enjoy life in his wonderful creation.

 

[Aunty Jane]

I'm aware of context.
John 4 is still relevant in that well prior to his talking with Nicodemus countless people had died. And yet no one ascended I to Heaven except He who descended from it,the Son of Man.

Makes you wonder where they all went before Jesus opened the way to heaven.....doesn’t it?

Some have been very creative in their assumptions about that, but the Bible explains very clearly where all the dead reside, both “the righteous and the unrighteous”.....(Acts 24:15; John 5:28-29)

 

[ProverbsInPink]

Makes you wonder where they all went before Jesus opened the way to heaven.....doesn’t it?

Some have been very creative in their assumptions about that, but the Bible explains very clearly where all the dead reside, both “the righteous and the unrighteous”.....(Acts 24:15; John 5:28-29)

The more I read threads here and in other communities I browse from time to time, the more it becomes apparent that the Bible isn't taken as seriously as one would think.

 

[David in NJ]

John 6:54
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

Jesus said it all here, He will raise them on the last day, not raise them a thousand years before the last day.

So simple a child can understand = the WAY our Heavenly FATHER leads us into all Truth

 

[David in NJ]

Makes you wonder where they all went before Jesus opened the way to heaven.....doesn’t it?

Some have been very creative in their assumptions about that, but the Bible explains very clearly where all the dead reside, both “the righteous and the unrighteous”.....(Acts 24:15; John 5:28-29)

What about where the OT 'righteous' who died = where did they go???

What did JESUS say on this................

 

[Davidpt]

John 6:54
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

Jesus said it all here, He will raise them on the last day, not raise them a thousand years before the last day.

Where does it ever say or imply in that passage that the lost are meant as well? Since when do the lost ever do any of this-- eats His flesh and drinks His blood and has eternal life?

Premils typically apply John 6:54 to that of during the 2nd coming. Then apply the resurrection of the lost to that of after the millennium that follows the 2nd coming. Therefore, what you said here makes no sense--- not raise them a thousand years before the last day.---but is misrepresenting how Premils typically interpret John 6:54. And once again, the lost are not in view per John 6:54 to begin with. Context---Context matters. Only the saved are. After all, it is only the saved that are granted eternal life. The lost certainly aren't.

Not to mention, since when does a day only mean a 24 hour day and never an era of time in some cases? IOW, what is likely meant by the last day is the millennium, the last day of the last days. I'm pretty certain if the last days can be involving 2K years thus far, the last day can equally involve another 1K years.

You might argue, if the last days can involve 3K years, why does Christ have to return before they expire? Maybe because of things like this , for one--

Acts 3:19 Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord;
20 And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you:
21 Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began.

Note that it says until the times of restitution of all things, not until the time of restitution of all things. IOW, how does one fit times(plural) into a single day event?

1 Thessalonians 5:1 But of the times and the seasons, brethren, ye have no need that I write unto you.


Take this verse. for example. Would anyone take 'times' in that verse to be only involving a single day? If no, and surely they wouldn't to begin with, why would they then treat 'times' in Acts 3:19 in an entirely different manner and apply a single day to it? Keeping in mind, per Amil there are no more days after the last day.

 

[jeffweeder]

Premils typically apply John 6:54 to that of during the 2nd coming. Then apply the resurrection of the lost to that of after the millennium that follows the 2nd coming.

Why would they want to do that?, when it should be obvious that Paul taught the Lord comes in eternal vengeance against all who have rejected the Gospel on the day he comes to raise and glorify us the last Day.


2Thess 1
5 This is a positive proof of the righteous judgment of God [a sign of His fair verdict], so that you will be considered worthy of His kingdom, for which indeed you are suffering.
6 For after all it is only just for God to repay with distress those who distress you, 7 and to give relief to you who are so distressed and to us as well when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels in a flame of fire, 8 dealing out [full and complete] vengeance to those who do not [seek to] know God and to those who ignore and refuse to obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus [by choosing not to respond to Him].

9 These people will pay the penalty and endure the punishment of everlasting destruction, banished from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of His power, 10 when He comes to be glorified in His saints on that day , and to be marveled at among all who have believed, because our testimony to you was believed and trusted [and confirmed in your lives].

 

[jeffweeder]

Why would they want to do that?, when it should be obvious that Paul taught the Lord comes in eternal vengeance against all who have rejected the Gospel on the day he comes to raise and glorify us the last Day.


2Thess 1
5 This is a positive proof of the righteous judgment of God [a sign of His fair verdict], so that you will be considered worthy of His kingdom, for which indeed you are suffering.
6 For after all it is only just for God to repay with distress those who distress you, 7 and to give relief to you who are so distressed and to us as well when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels in a flame of fire, 8 dealing out [full and complete] vengeance to those who do not [seek to] know God and to those who ignore and refuse to obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus [by choosing not to respond to Him].

9 These people will pay the penalty and endure the punishment of everlasting destruction, banished from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of His power, 10 when He comes to be glorified in His saints on that day , and to be marveled at among all who have believed, because our testimony to you was believed and trusted [and confirmed in your lives].

Jesus said,

John 12:48
Whoever rejects Me and refuses to accept My teachings, has one who judges him; the very word that I spoke will judge and condemn him on the last day.

 

[JLB]

John 6:54
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

Jesus said it all here, He will raise them on the last day, not raise them a thousand years before the last day.

Or raise them 7 years before the last day.

 

[WPM]

I'm aware of context.
John 4 is still relevant in that well prior to his talking with Nicodemus countless people had died. And yet no one ascended I to Heaven except He who descended from it,the Son of Man.

He took captivity captive. He emptied Hades.

 

[Marty fox]

Where does it ever say or imply in that passage that the lost are meant as well? Since when do the lost ever do any of this-- eats His flesh and drinks His blood and has eternal life?

Premils typically apply John 6:54 to that of during the 2nd coming. Then apply the resurrection of the lost to that of after the millennium that follows the 2nd coming. Therefore, what you said here makes no sense--- not raise them a thousand years before the last day.---but is misrepresenting how Premils typically interpret John 6:54. And once again, the lost are not in view per John 6:54 to begin with. Context---Context matters. Only the saved are. After all, it is only the saved that are granted eternal life. The lost certainly aren't.

Not to mention, since when does a day only mean a 24 hour day and never an era of time in some cases? IOW, what is likely meant by the last day is the millennium, the last day of the last days. I'm pretty certain if the last days can be involving 2K years thus far, the last day can equally involve another 1K years.

You might argue, if the last days can involve 3K years, why does Christ have to return before they expire? Maybe because of things like this , for one--

Acts 3:19 Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord;
20 And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you:
21 Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began.

Note that it says until the times of restitution of all things, not until the time of restitution of all things. IOW, how does one fit times(plural) into a single day event?

1 Thessalonians 5:1 But of the times and the seasons, brethren, ye have no need that I write unto you.


Take this verse. for example. Would anyone take 'times' in that verse to be only involving a single day? If no, and surely they wouldn't to begin with, why would they then treat 'times' in Acts 3:19 in an entirely different manner and apply a single day to it? Keeping in mind, per Amil there are no more days after the last day.

Then if premillennialism applies John 6:54 to what they believe the second coming is in revelation chapter 19 then who do the saints reign over if every unsaved person is dead according to the verse 18 below?

Revelation 19
17 And I saw an angel standing in the sun, who cried in a loud voice to all the birds flying in midair, “Come, gather together for the great supper of God, 18 so that you may eat the flesh of kings, generals, and the mighty, of horses and their riders, and the flesh of all people, free and slave, great and small.”

 

[Truth7t7]

The thousand years IS the last day

"False" the return of Jesus in tye heavens in fire and final judgement is the "Last Day" (The End)

A millennial kingdom on this earth doesn't exist in scripture, it a fabricated fairy tale of man

 

[Davidpt]

Then if premillennialism applies John 6:54 to what they believe the second coming is in revelation chapter 19 then who do the saints reign over if every unsaved person is dead according to the verse 18 below?

Revelation 19
17 And I saw an angel standing in the sun, who cried in a loud voice to all the birds flying in midair, “Come, gather together for the great supper of God, 18 so that you may eat the flesh of kings, generals, and the mighty, of horses and their riders, and the flesh of all people, free and slave, great and small.”

Is Zechariah 14:16-19 not in your Bible? Is or is not the OT holy writ as well?

Zechariah 14:12 And this shall be the plague wherewith the LORD will smite all the people that have fought against Jerusalem; Their flesh shall consume away while they stand upon their feet, and their eyes shall consume away in their holes, and their tongue shall consume away in their mouth.

Verse 12 is likely meaning Revelation 19:21, for one.

Zechariah 14:16 And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles.
17 And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.
18 And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith the LORD will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
19 This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacle

This is meaning after verse 12 has been fulfilled first. Note what the text says---that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem.

The saved never come against Jerusalem to begin with. Therefore, we know the saved can't be meant here. Which Jerusalem is meant? IMO, the one meant in Revelation 11:1-2, for one. Except that is not meaning a literal city in the middle east.

Now note what verse 17 says---And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.

We already know from Revelation 19 that the timing of verse 12 is the 2nd coming. Well maybe you don't already that, but that doesn't mean some of the rest of us don't. We need to ask our self this since verse17 is obviously meaning post the 2nd coming, the fact zero, in any sense, during the past 2000 years can possibly explain verse 12. And that verse 17 must follow verse 12. Is verse 17 meaning before or after 1 Corinthians 15:28 is fulfilled? This matters because if verse 17 means after 1 Corinthians 15:28 is fulfilled, this indicates we have to apply verse 17 to all of eternity since there would be no time period with a beginning and an end preventing it from happening.

But if verse 17 is meaning before 1 Corinthians 15:28 is fulfilled, yet post the 2nd coming, there is indeed a time period preventing it from continuing in that manner forever. And everyone here, including you, know exactly which time period I'm meaning. I'm not saying you agree, but that is beside the point.

Not to mention, it's plainly obvious to a lot of us, maybe not to any Amils as well except for maybe a few, that this in verse 5 in Zechariah 14---and the LORD my God shall come, and all the saints with thee---undeniably means Revelation 19:11, 14, for one. And that verse 12 in Zechariah 14 is because of the 2nd coming recorded in verse 5. Thus then leads to verses 16-19, which plainly, undeniably, says there are some survivors.

Of course though, except it would be absurd to do so, one can maybe argue that the one meant in Revelation 19:11 is not God, nor is anyone meant in Revelation 19:14 meaning any of His saints. Therefore, Zechariah 14:5 and this---and the LORD my God shall come, and all the saints with thee---couldn't possibly be meaning Revelation 19:11, 14, for those reasons.

 

[Marty fox]

Is Zechariah 14:16-19 not in your Bible? Is or is not the OT holy writ as well?

Zechariah 14:12 And this shall be the plague wherewith the LORD will smite all the people that have fought against Jerusalem; Their flesh shall consume away while they stand upon their feet, and their eyes shall consume away in their holes, and their tongue shall consume away in their mouth.


This is likely meaning Revelation 19:21, for one.

Zechariah 14:16 And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles.
17 And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.
18 And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith the LORD will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
19 This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacle

This is meaning after verse 12 has been fulfilled first. Note what the text says---that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem.

The saved never come against Jerusalem to begin with. Therefore, we know the saved can't be meant here. Which Jerusalem is meant? IMO, the one meant in Revelation 11:1-2, for one. Except that is not meaning a literal city in the middle east.

Now note what verse 17 says---And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.

We already know from Revelation 19 that the timing of verse 12 is the 2nd coming. Well maybe you don't already that, but that doesn't mean some of the rest of us don't. We need to ask ourself this since verse is obviously meaning post the 2nd coming, the fact zero, in any sense, during the past 2000 years can possibly explain verse 12. Is verse 17 meaning before or after 1 Corithians 15:28 is fulfilled? This matters because if verse 17 means after 1 Corithians 15:28 is fulfilled, this indicates we have to apply verse 17 to all of eternity since there would be no period preventing it from happening.

But if verse 17 is meaning before 1 Corithians 15:28 is fulfilled, yet post the 2nd coming, there is indeed a time period preventing it from continuing in that manner forever. And everyone here, including you, know exactly which time period I'm meaning. I'm not saying you agree, but that is beside the point.

Not to mention, it's plainly obvious to a lot of us, maybe not to any Amils as well except for maybe a few, that this in verse 5 in Zechariah 14---and the LORD my God shall come, and all the saints with thee---undeniably mean Revelation 19:11, 14, for one. And that verse 12 in Zechariah 14 is because of the 2nd coming recorded in verse 5. Thus then leads to verses 16-19, which plainly, undeniably, says there are some survivors.

Of course though, except it would be absurd to do so, one can maybe argue that the one meant in Revelation 19:11 is not God, nor is anyone meant in Revelation 19:14 meaning any of His saints. Therefore, Zechariah 14:5 and this---and the LORD my God shall come, and all the saints with thee---couldn't possibly be meaning Revelation 19:11, 14, for those reasons.

Instead of assuming events are the same how about answering the question.

Who is left for the saints to rule over if in revelation chapter 19 every none believer is dead?

”“Come, gather together for the great supper of God, 18 so that you may eat the flesh of kings, generals, and the mighty, of horses and their riders, and the flesh of all people, free and slave, great and small.”

The birds ate the flesh of all people free and slave great and small.

 

[Davy]

It's in the Bible isn't it? No one has entered Heaven except the one who descended from it?

So dead people are still asleep laying the ground? Sure... right. That's an old Jewish myth, called Soul Sleep.

Apostle Paul said in 2 Cor.5 to be absent from the body is to be present with The LORD. End of debate.

 

[Davidpt]

Instead of assuming events are the same how about answering the question.

Who is left for the saints to rule over if in revelation chapter 19 every none believer is dead?

”“Come, gather together for the great supper of God, 18 so that you may eat the flesh of kings, generals, and the mighty, of horses and their riders, and the flesh of all people, free and slave, great and small.”

The birds ate the flesh of all people free and slave great and small.

What in the world are you talking about, answer the question? I did answer the question. Just because you might disagree with my answer does not mean I didn't answer your question. I already told you, Zechariah 14:16-19 explains who some of these are. You of course are free to show why Zechariah 14:16-19 does not support what I apply it to, and then show what it does apply to, and why and how it does. It's one thing to tell someone they are mistaken about something. It's another thing altogether to tell someone why they are mistaken about something, then provide the alleged correct interpretation instead.

And it doesn't cut it if, for example, you tell me that by placing Zechariah 14:16-19 after the 2nd coming this means literal animal sacrificing resumes. Except that is not my position. No way in a million years do I think animal sacrificing resumes, period. Let alone after the 2nd coming

BTW, why do you refuse to believe what the text states in Zechariah 14:16--- that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem? And if initially involving the same time period Revelation 19:21 is involving, how does survivors equal no survivors? You are not interpreting Revelation 19:21 in light of Zechariah 14:12, 16-19, I am. Obviously, we are not going to arrive at the same conclusions in that case, since I don't refuse to believe Zechariah 14:16, that there are survivors remaining, yet you do.