Word of the Lord for COVID

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Jay Ross

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Ahhhh Jay, I had credited you with a better reply. You have side stepped by quoting text which I am familiar with but you personally haven't said anything of significance regarding our conversation.

QT you said this: -
1.....Leviticus 20:10 commands adulterers be stoned. John 8:11 has Jesus dismissing Leviticus 20:10 (neither do I condemn you.)
and in response I said this: -
Leviticus 20:10: - 10 'The man who commits adultery with another man's wife, he who commits adultery with his neighbour’s wife, the adulterer and the adulteress, shall die the second death.
The contradiction is in your understanding of what the Hebrew text actually stated and the English translation error that you are trying to use to justify your false premise that adulaters will both be stoned to death.
 

ProDeo

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10 'The man who commits adultery with another man's wife, he who commits adultery with his neighbour’s wife, the adulterer and the adulteress, shall surely be put to death/die the second death.

Second death is only mentioned in Revelation

I am curious about the evidence you changing Scripture.

And how would people in the time of Moses understand the meaning of the second death, there was hardly a concept of afterlife, let alone the existence of the Lake of Fire.
 
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Jay Ross

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Second death is only mentioned in Revelation

No, it is also mentioned in Genesis 2:17 and is clearly seen in the Hebrew text but is lost in the translations. However, the Hebrew word more commonly found in the Hebrew text is not "tā·mūṯ" which is found in Gen 2:17 in association with the Hebrew word "mō·wṯ" which precedes it, but in Leviticus 20:10 it is the Hebrew word "yū·maṯ" that follows the Hebrew word "mō·wṯ-".

I am curious about the evidence you changing Scripture.

Really, you are claiming that I have changed the scriptures? It is the translators who have changed the context and meaning of the scriptures with respect to the Second Death based upon the misunderstanding of the Jewish scholars of Gen 2:17. The clear meaning of the "second death" in Revelation 20 is that if you have sinned against God and have not repented of yur turning away from God then you die the second death. This is the context that I have applied in Lev 20:9-16, that if you sin against God's statutes and commandment then you will become a candidate for the second death if you do not repent of your sins.

And how would people in the time of Moses understand the meaning of the second death, there was hardly a concept of afterlife, let alone the existence of the Lake of Fire.

In the book of Genesis, there are two accounts where the second death is alluded too. The first time is when the Abraham went down to Egypt in Gen 12:10-20 and more directly in Gen 20:1-18 when Abimelech took Sahar, Abraham's wife into his house.

In both of these stories, the concept of the afterlife and the consequence of sinning against God was certainly understood, just as the concept that the descendants of Abraham and Jacob understood that they were a special people group and that they had a covenantal relationship with God. During the time of Moses, the descendants of Jacob would have known about the concept that if you sinned against God, then you would have died the second death. It was a traditional oral understanding and Moses recorded when he wrote the first five books of our scriptures.

Your rebuttal is based upon a flimsy understanding of the Scriptures. The concept of the Second Death is woven into the scriptures from the time of Adam right up to this present time and even to when the final judgement will take place.

Shalom
 

quietthinker

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QT you said this: -

and in response I said this: -

The contradiction is in your understanding of what the Hebrew text actually stated and the English translation error that you are trying to use to justify your false premise that adulaters will both be stoned to death.
Sorry Jay, I don't buy your side step.
 

Jay Ross

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Sorry Jay, I don't buy your side step.

QT you are welcome to believe what you want. We all have missteps in our understandings of the scriptures. Many of those missteps have been created by man and not by God.
 

ShineTheLight

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God does not bring calamities. Have you forgotten that Jesus said it was the Devil who came to steal, kill and destroy?
Solomon did not know about a devil so all events were attributed to God.
Attributing calamities to God is none other than playing right into the devil's hand.....cuz that's what he wants you to believe.....and who can rest in trust of God if he brings calamities?
I understand exactly what you posted Jay. It's not that I don't get your point of view. You are using these texts to confirm that it is God who sends calamities, pestilence, droughts and locusts etc, in the same vane that Isaiah tells us God creates both good and evil, heals and kills......however, I don't think you understand my point or why I make it.

So let me ask you this, how is it there is contradiction between what the Prophets believed and wrote, even attributing it to God saying so on this subject and what Jesus and the Apostles are telling us?
Now you might say there is no contradiction......so will I need to rub your nose into the contradictions?

There are scriptures/passages that testify that God can bring calamities. Do you love the lamb but not the lion?