God cannot sin, it is impossible for Him to do so, whereas the Son of Man was tempted in every way. He was capable of sinning yet did not; instead, through suffering and death, he remained obedient and faithful.
So, you are not a Trinitarian, yet you believe in the pre-existence of Christ as a divine being, is that correct?
What is crucial is that John 1 and John 8 cannot be used to support the idea of Christ’s pre-existence; in both passages the context clearly points to pre-eminence, not literal pre-existence.
The reason it is so difficult to prove is that it is a false teaching, developed and codified through human councils rather than Scripture.
Col 1:18 And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent.
Firstborn; first man to be granted immortality and to be exalted to the right hand of the Father on High.
Once your understanding aligns with the Apostles’ teaching, seeing Christ as the firstborn and the firstfruits of those who sleep...the wonder of his sacrifice and the principles of atonement truly come alive.
Deity (ie. God) does not sin. Correct. The "Son of man" (Dan. 7:13, Mat. 12:8, 16:13 KJB, &c.) is "God ... manifest in the flesh" (1 Tim. 3:16 KJB), as even John 1 clearly stated (previously cited, "the Word was God ... the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us ... the only begotten of the Father ... Jesus Christ ... the only begotten Son", "All things were made by him", "the world was made by him", "He came unto his own", &c.). The flesh that was taken was "in the likeness of sinful (ie., fallen) flesh" (Rom. 8:3), and not of the nature of the unfallen angelic heavenly hosts (Heb. 2:16 KJB), and in this way could die, for if it were unfallen flesh (as something like the nature of unfallen angelic hosts have; see 1 Cor. 15:39-40; Jud. 1:7; Heb. 2:16, &c.) it is not subject to death unless sin is present (as like unto the first Adam). Thus he could be tempted in all points. The temptation came through the sinful (fallen) flesh:
Mat_26:41 Watch and pray, that ye enter not into temptation: the spirit indeed is willing, but the flesh is weak.
Mar_14:38 Watch ye and pray, lest ye enter into temptation. The spirit truly is ready, but the flesh is weak.
This is how the Son (being in nature Deity, and in nature human (with sinful (fallen) flesh) could be tempted. For with God, all things are possible.
This passage is not about pre-eminence:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
It is about pre-existence, even to the point of placing the Son of the Father at the creation of the earth, in Gen. 1, "In the beginning". Beginning is time, or chronology, not about pre-eminence or superiority.
I have already thoroughly addressed John 8 in several replies, even down to the very language itself.
I have not anywhere in my responses pointed to any "human councils", but I have continually addressed every response by the actual scripture, which exists before any such "human councils". I have not even brought up such "human councils" once in my replies. You have been the first to do so. Those "human councils" are non-sequitur (even a red-herring) to our discussion. I do not care what those "human councils" have in print. They are not relevant to my position, or responses. I am not a credalist. I do not adhere to any of the man-made creeds either (they all have their individual errors, and are again non-sequitur to our discussion).
Colossians 1:18 is about pre-eminence, no doubt (and never in question). However, I did not cite Col. 1:18. I cited, Col. 1:16:
Col 1:16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
Which has nothing to do with pre-eminence, but pre-existence. Just because one passage (even in immediate context) is about one thing (say pre-eminence in matters of Resurrection), does not mean that the previous verses are of the same idea. Col. 1:16 is clearly stating that "him" (Jesus / Son) is the One Who "created" "all things", which automatically excludes Jesus from all created things. He is not in a category of "created things", since He was their creator. Those "things" were not merely created "by him", but also "for him", not merely in earth, but also in heaven.
What you are essentially doing (and merely pointing it out), is often what Islamicists (and sometimes atheists) will do. I point to a text on Jesus' eternal existing Deity. They point to a text on Jesus' finite humanity (as the human nature of the Son was "made"). The one does not negate the other, nor supercede the other. They are not antagonistic to each other. They are harmonious together. They both are required. To say that a text speaks of the pre-eminence of Jesus, does not negate, nor superceded the texts on His pre-existence. They are both required.
Firstborn in scripture has several meanings (which may be seen in this image here -
Did The Mary Of Scripture Remain An Ever Virgin (Perpetual Virgin) As Romanism Says - NO : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive ), one of which means 'chief' (or pre-eminent one; and does not always mean first in chronological time). I may list the meanings as needful, requested, in this thread by any who ask for them. Never-the-less, Jesus was not the first man to be granted immortality in being resurrected. That falls to Moses:
Rom_5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
Luk 9:30 And, behold, there talked with him two men, which were Moses and Elias:
Luk 9:31 Who appeared in glory, and spake of his decease which he should accomplish at Jerusalem.
Moses was permanantly resurrected (even by Jesus, for it was by the LORD that Moses was buried in the first place; Num. 20:8-12, 27:13, 31:2; Deu. 4:21-22, 31:2,14,16, 32:51-52, 34:1-8; 1 Sam. 2:6; Mat. 17:1-12; Mar. 9:1-13; Luk. 9:27-36; Jhn. 11:25-26; Rom. 5:14; 2 Pet. 1:16; Jud. 1:9 KJB) long before Jesus' resurrection took place. However, as the text of Col. 1:18 shows, Jesus' resurrection is the pre-eminent one (it doesn't say first one, as in chronological in time), that was required for anyone to ever be resurrected, and that included Moses' permanent resurrection. Moses was permanently resurrected in the promise of Jesus' own death, burial and resurrection from Gen. 3:15,21. This is why Jesus' resurrection is the pre-emninent one, not the first in chronological time.
My understanding aligns perfectly with the Apostles doctrine, as demonstrated in my responses:
Act 2:42 And they continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers.
Act_24:14 But this I confess unto thee, that after the way which they call heresy, so worship I the God of my fathers, believing all things which are written in the law and in the prophets: