Peter was not speaking symbolically in 2nd Peter 3. You are mistaken. It's not apocalyptic text like in the book of Revelation. What do you think, that Peter was comparing something symbolic with something literal in 2 Peter 3:6-7? Why would he do that? No, he was directly comparing one past physical global event with a future physical global event.
See above. It's very simple. You are unable to discern even simple things like this. It makes me wonder what can you discern?
Not at all.
2 Peter 3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
11 ¶Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?
Revelation 6:12 And I beheld when he had opened the sixth seal, and, lo, there was a great earthquake; and the sun became black as sackcloth of hair, and the moon became as blood;
13 And the stars of heaven fell unto the earth, even as a fig tree casteth her untimely figs, when she is shaken of a mighty wind.
14 And the heaven departed as a scroll when it is rolled together; and every mountain and island were moved out of their places.
In light of how you are interpreting 2 Peter 3:10-12, how are you then interpreting Revelation 6:13-14? Do you think both accounts are involving the same events? Do you think one account is meaning in the literal sense, the other account is symbolic not literal?
BTW, does not Revelation 6:12-14 echo what is recorded in the OT?
Isaiah 13:10 For the stars of heaven and the constellations thereof shall not give their light: the sun shall be darkened in his going forth, and the moon shall not cause her light to shine.
Then consider the following, that which Isaiah 13:10 is referring to.
Isaiah 13:6 Howl ye; for the day of the LORD is at hand; it shall come as a destruction from the Almighty.
Also consider the following.
Isaiah 13:16 Their children also shall be dashed to pieces before their eyes; their houses shall be spoiled, and their wives ravished.
Then compare with the following.
Zechariah 14:2 For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
Keeping in mind Zechariah 14:1---Behold, the day of the LORD cometh
Of course though, you couldn't care less, would be my guess. Too much work and too much thinking involved in order to also consider the OT before fully deciding what all might be meant in the NT regarding the same subject matter. Way easier to interpret the NT based on what the NT alone says rather than what both the NT and OT combined say.
IMO, it is absurd to interpret 2 Peter 3:10-12 in one manner, then interpret Revelation 6:12-14 and Isaiah 13 in an entirely different manner when the subject matter is the same in all 3 accounts, that being the day of the Lord.