Revelation 20:1-15 & the 1,000 years (aka Millennium) Bible Study

[Spiritual Israelite]

I understand your position about that, and I am not here to change your mind about it.

If we may continue with the OP subject, as I have questions to ask of you:

I make the statement, "I went to the store and bought groceries."

How long was "I" at the store before buying groceries?​

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What is the lynchpin word in the sentence that indicates the passage of time, whether short, or long?​

I make another statement, "Jesus would be born and die."

How long is between the time Jesus was "born", to the time He was to "die"?​

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What is the lynchpin word in the sentence that indicates the passage of time, whether short, or long?​

Consider this text:

2Co 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.​

I ask similar questions, and one additional, as like unto the first ones.

How long is the timing from the moment of "absent from the body" "to be present with the Lord"?​

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What is the lynchpin word in the sentence that indicates the passage of time, whether short or long?​

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Is there any text which sheds light on the timing from one thing to the other?​

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1Th_4:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.​

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These things are related to the subject under discussion. Consider, and ask similar questions:

When does the following event (atmosphere of earth being removed, burning up, exposing it to open 'space' (2nd Heaven), as like the earth being covered in the blackness of sackcloth and mourning) occur; at the second coming (beginning the 1000 years), or after the 1000 years?

Isa_34:4 And all the host of heaven shall be dissolved, and the heavens shall be rolled together as a scroll: and all their host shall fall down, as the leaf falleth off from the vine, and as a falling fig from the fig tree.​

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Jer_4:28 For this shall the earth mourn, and the heavens above be black: because I have spoken it, I have purposed it, and will not repent, neither will I turn back from it.​

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2Pe_3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat ...​

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2Pe 3:12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?​

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Rev_6:14 And the heaven departed as a scroll when it is rolled together; and every mountain and island were moved out of their places.​

When does the following event (burning up of the world / land), as like the global flood of Noah, except in fire, occur; at the second coming, or after the 1000 years?

Eze 38:8 After many days thou shalt be visited: in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations, and they shall dwell safely all of them.​

Eze 38:18 And it shall come to pass at the same time when Gog shall come against the land of Israel, saith the Lord GOD, that my fury shall come up in my face.​

Eze 38:21 And I will call for a sword against him throughout all my mountains, saith the Lord GOD: every man's sword shall be against his brother.​

Eze 38:22 And I will plead against him with pestilence and with blood; and I will rain upon him, and upon his bands, and upon the many people that are with him, an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, fire, and brimstone.​

Rev 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,​

Rev 20:8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.​

Rev 20:9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.​

Rev 20:10 And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.​

Which destruction happens first; the destruction of the heaven (earth's atmosphere), or of the earth (earth's land)?

Now, looking at those two events, and their perfectly infallibly described timing by the texts above, consider the following texts, and the lynchpin words in them, and ask similar questions as at the first:

Mat_24:35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.​

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Mar_13:31 Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away.​

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Luk_21:33 Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away.​

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2Pe_3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.​

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2Pe 3:12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?​

One phase, or two phases; that take place in a greater "day of the LORD", or 1000 years length? Does the word "and" mean in the same 24hr period, or can it mean a much greater length of time? Do the texts say that the Earth passes away as in the same 24hr period as the Heaven?

So, can Heaven pass away at the beginning of the 1000 years, while the Earth passes away at the end of the 1000 years, all of which still takes place in the greater "day of the Lord", or "thousand years"?

Paul writes about the same event in 1 Thessalonians 5:2-3 and describes the destruction as "sudden". Does that seem like he could be referring to a long period of time? Clearly not. The word sudden means a very short amount of time. So, in no way, shape or form is it reasonable to try to extend what is described in 2 Peter 3:10-12, which is the same event as 1 Thess 5:2-3, to a thousand years.

 

[Hiddenthings]

Notice in both Zec. 14 and Rev. 20 that New Jerusalem does not appear on earth until after the 1000 years, when the total annihilation of the lost takes place, and a New Heaven and New Earth are created over their ashes:

This is the culmination of Christ's millennial work with the Saints on earth.

During his days the godly will flourish; peace will prevail as long as the moon remains in the sky. 72:8 May he rule from sea to sea, and from the Euphrates River to the ends of the earth! Ps 72:7–8.

Your view implies that the earth never actually sees the establishment of David’s throne or a King reigning among the nations. Instead, both the King and his saints remain entirely unseen throughout the thousand years.

It completely contradicts the entirety of Psalm 72.

To deny the saints’ reward of reigning with Him on the earth requires twisting the meaning of many plainly stated verses

Have authority over ten cities. Luke 19:17.
I will make thee ruler of many things. Matt. 25:21.
He shall make him ruler over all his goods. Matt. 24:47; Luke 22:29.
To him will I give power over the nations, and he shall rule them with a rod of iron … even as I have received of my Father.
Rev. 2:27.
We shall reign on the earth. Rev. 5:10.
We shall also reign with him. II Tim. 2:12

The issue is at the end of the 1000 years it is no longer Christ and the Saints who are ruling but God Himself!

Too many false teaching in your mind and the way you "work around" Acts 1 is shameful.

 

[Hiddenthings]

Scripture consistently teaches that Christ and His saints will reign from real thrones in God’s Kingdom. “For there are set thrones of judgment, the thrones of the house of David” (Ps. 122:5). Jesus promised His disciples, “In the regeneration… ye also shall sit upon thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel” (Matt. 19:28; Luke 22:30). John confirms this vision: “I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them” (Rev. 20:4).

Christ himself declares, “To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne” (Rev. 3:21). Even during his ministry, the expectation was understood plainly, as seen in the request, “Grant that my two sons may sit… in thy kingdom” (Matt. 20:21). Finally, Jesus taught that Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and all the prophets will be seen in the Kingdom of God, with many coming to sit down in the kingdom (Luke 13:28–29; Matt. 8:11).

Together, these passages testify to a visible, earthly reign of Christ, with His saints sharing in judgment and authority, not an unseen or purely spiritual rule.

 

[Adventageous]

1st of all, which Scripture are you quoting: "Jesus would be born and die"?

I am not quoting any scripture in that instance. I was simply making a point, using a sentence structure, similar to that of actual scriptural text when it uses the word "and" between events.

 

[WPM]

I am not quoting any scripture in that instance. I was simply making a point, using a sentence structure, similar to that of actual scriptural text when it uses the word "and" between events.

Like I thought! That seems to sum up your theology. It is not based on hard Scripture.

 

[Adventageous]

The day of the Lord is the day of the second coming of Christ. Nowhere does scripture teach that the day of the Lord lasts a long time or 1,000 years.

It (the "day of the Lord" being 1000 years long) is right in the textual context of Peter's 2nd Epistle, please consider:

2Pe_3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.​

2Pe_3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.​

The word "day", whether in Hebrew, or koine Greek, or even English has a range of definition / use, and can mean anything from, a natural 24hr day (ie. "There are seven days in a week."; or "... And the evening and the morning were the first day."; Gen. 1:5;p KJB), to the daylight time (when the sun is present in the sky; ie. "I looked outside and it was day, as opposed to night."; "Jesus answered, Are there not twelve hours in the day? If any man walk in the day, he stumbleth not, because he seeth the light of this world."; Jhn. 11:9 KJB), to a period of time (short or long; "Man, it's been some time, I haven't seen or heard from you in a day."; "Turn from him, that he may rest, till he shall accomplish, as an hireling, his day."; Job 14:6 KJB).

Peter is drawing from Psa. 84:10, 90:4 for his statement:

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Psa 84:10 For a day in thy courts is better than a thousand. I had rather be a doorkeeper in the house of my God, than to dwell in the tents of wickedness.​

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Psa 90:4 For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night.​

In Psa. 90, "days" are paralleled with "years", as it is in many places of scripture (*):

Psa 90:9 For all our days are passed away in thy wrath: we spend our years as a tale that is told.​

(*) - Frank W Hardy - Day For A Year Parallels : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive
(*) - Secrets Unsealed Stephen Bohr 20 Reasons To Apply The Day For A Year In Bible Prophecy : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive

The OT uses the phrase like this over and over again, as for instance:

Isa_34:8 For it is the day of the LORD'S vengeance, and the year of recompences for the controversy of Zion.​

Isa 34:10 It shall not be quenched night nor day; the smoke thereof shall go up for ever: from generation to generation it shall lie waste; none shall pass through it for ever and ever.​

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Eze 30:3 For the day is near, even the day of the LORD is near, a cloudy day; it shall be the time of the heathen.​

See Zep. 1 (whole chapter), "day of the LORD", "in the day", "in that day", "at that time", &c. in which many events and time passes.​

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Again in Eze. 38; & Zec. 14:1-4; see the phrases as they are used in Revelation 20, and thus "in that day", associated with "in the latter days" (plural), and "the day of the LORD", and a period of "time":​

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Eze 38:14 Therefore, son of man, prophesy and say unto Gog, Thus saith the Lord GOD; In that day when my people of Israel dwelleth safely, shalt thou not know it?​

Eze 38:16 And thou shalt come up against my people of Israel, as a cloud to cover the land; it shall be in the latter days, and I will bring thee against my land, that the heathen may know me, when I shall be sanctified in thee, O Gog, before their eyes.​

Eze 38:18 And it shall come to pass at the same time when Gog shall come against the land of Israel, saith the Lord GOD, that my fury shall come up in my face.​

Eze 38:22 And I will plead against him with pestilence and with blood; and I will rain upon him, and upon his bands, and upon the many people that are with him, an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, fire, and brimstone.​

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Zec 14:1 Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, and thy spoil shall be divided in the midst of thee.​

Zec 14:2 For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.​

Zec 14:4 And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west, and there shall be a very great valley; and half of the mountain shall remove toward the north, and half of it toward the south.​

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Rev 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,​

Rev 20:8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.​

Rev 20:9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.​

Paul clearly taught that the day will bring "sudden destruction" upon unbelievers from which "they shall not escape" (1 Thessalonians 5:2-3).

I already agree that the living (physically) wicked / lost will be suddenly destroyed at the 2nd Advent / Coming. That is not in question, and I cited it several times. That is only the first phase, which begins the 1000 years. It is after the 1000 years, that all of the wicked / lost whom have ever lived (physically), from the time of Cain will be resurrected, and have the exection of punishment permanently upon them.

1Th 5:2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.​

1Th 5:3 For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape.​

Thus at the beginning of the "day of the LORD", or the beginning of the 1000 years, the living (physically) wicked / lost on earth, at Jesus' 2nd Advent / Coming will indeed be taken unawares just as the flood of Noah came in a day, but lasted a loooong time (a little over a year), in type, to its counter-part. This is why the earth will be utterly devastated at that time, unto the ending of the 1000 years when all of the lost will be resurrected (Rev. 1:5a,7-10, &c). Just as the living (physically) lost in Noah's day were destroyed over time, so too, in the counterpart. For some persons in Noah's day it took weeks to months to perish, and yet it is a "day" of the LORD, or "day" of the LORD's vengeance. It simply means a period of time. It is the time of the LORD's justice. Just like the phrase, in Hebrews 4, "Heb 4:7 Again, he limiteth a certain day, saying in David, To day, after so long a time; as it is said, To day if ye will hear his voice, harden not your hearts." in other words, the "to day" is not merely 24hrs, but a length of time of God's grace being offered from the time of Jesus Christ even until now, the last 2000 years (see Ecc. 6:6, "a thousand years twice").

In Noah's day, the LORD came down (Gen. 7:16 KJB), then arose up high above the land (in type), among the waters and clouds, with all of the saints in the 'ark' (Gen. 7:20 KJB), and stayed there a long time (Gen. 8:13 KJB), and then after a long time, came back down to earth (Gen. 8:4 KJB), and settled, with all of the wicked destroyed, and they inheriting the 'new' (reshaped by the flood) earth (Gen. 8:17 & Gen. 9 KJB). Type and anti-type. It begins in a 24hr period, yes, but takes a lot longer time, months, even over a year in Noah's day. So too, in the greater "day of the LORD", when the LORD descends, to bring up the saints, into the clouds, and keep them in the greater 'Ark' (New Jerusalem), shutting them inward, and remain there for some time (1000 years), and then come back down to finalize events, wherein all of the wicked / lost whom have ever lived (physically) will be resurected to have executive justice upon them and then they are washed away by a sea / lake of fire, in counterpart to Noah's day, and eventually the saints go out and inherit a world made new.

... to be continued ...

 

[Adventageous]

The day of the Lord is a literal 24 hour day

No, it begins in a 24hr day. It lasts much longer, as just shown.

during which, at some unknown hour,

We only do not know "yet", but soon will, when God the Father's own voice will anounce the "day and hour" to all the earth, and only those in Christ Jesus at that time will understand. If you need texts let me know.

Jesus will come unexpectedly and things will happen suddenly on that day.

Yes, I agree, but the events, though sudden to those living on earth, continue long past the living (physically) lost ones destruction at the 2nd Advent. There must also be the destruction of all the wicked whom ever lived (physically) since Cain at the end of the 1000 years, Rev. 20:5a,7-10. For all of the wicked, it shall be suddenly in both instances, since those wicked / lost whom are alive (physically) at the second Advent, when they are taken in "sudden destruction", and laid in death, their next conscious thought will be at the end of the 1000 years, and it were as a moment to them, and so also for all the wicked / lost whom ever lived (physically) since from their death (even though it be some 6000 years for Cain) they have no conscious thought the whole time, until they are alive (physically) again.

The destruction will be "sudden". The change of our bodies will happen "in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye".

Yes, all agreed. The living (physically) wicked are slain as I have already cited and stated at the 2nd Advent. The living, and resurrected, saints are changed instantly, and must go to reign with Christ Jesus in Heaven for that 1000 years. This is why those saints are "caught up", "in the air", "in the clouds", and God brings them back with Jesus.

Nothing about the day of the Lord lasting a long time at all.

It is in the very context. You are mixing certain events with the timing. The specific events you describe are in a single 24hr day, but that is not the end of the events and the timing thereof.

Peter said we look for new heavens and new earth where righteousness will dwell in fulfillment of the promise of the second coming of Christ

No, he did not. You have added a word, not present in Peter's 2nd Epistle, and that word is "second" coming. Here is what Peter said:

2Pe 3:3 Knowing this first, that there shall come in the last days scoffers, walking after their own lusts,​

2Pe 3:4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation.​

2Pe 3:5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water:​

2Pe 3:6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:​

2Pe 3:7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men.​

2Pe 3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.​

2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.​

2Pe 3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.​

2Pe 3:11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,​

2Pe 3:12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?​

2Pe 3:13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.​

Peter just said that the "coming" of Jesus is in two stages (1. Heavens (atmosphere) destroyed at the beginning, and (passing of 1000 years), 2. Earth (land / sea) destroyed at the end of the 1000 years), "a thousand years" apart, and Peter calls this "thousand years" "the day of the Lord", "the day of God", and part of the "last days". The New Heavens and Earth do not happen until after the 1000 years, see Rev. 20:5a,7-10; 21:1-3, 22:1-5; Isa. 66:22-24:

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Rev 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,​

Rev 20:8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.​

Rev 20:9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.​

Rev 20:10 And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.​

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Rev 21:1 And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea. [the "sea" is "the lake of fire", ask for references]​

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Isa 66:22 For as the new heavens and the new earth, which I will make, shall remain before me, saith the LORD, so shall your seed and your name remain.​

Isa 66:23 And it shall come to pass, that from one new moon to another, and from one sabbath to another, shall all flesh come to worship before me, saith the LORD.​

Isa 66:24 And they shall go forth, and look upon the carcases of the men that have transgressed against me: for their worm shall not die, neither shall their fire be quenched; and they shall be an abhorring unto all flesh.​

, so that means eternity will be ushered in at His coming, not a temporary 1,000 year period of time before eternity is ushered in.

No, the 1000 years is the limited / finite beginning:

Jer 4:23 I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light.​

Jer 4:24 I beheld the mountains, and, lo, they trembled, and all the hills moved lightly.​

Jer 4:25 I beheld, and, lo, there was no man, and all the birds of the heavens were fled.​

Jer 4:26 I beheld, and, lo, the fruitful place was a wilderness, and all the cities thereof were broken down at the presence of the LORD, and by his fierce anger.​

Jer 4:27 For thus hath the LORD said, The whole land shall be desolate; yet will I not make a full end.​

Jer 4:28 For this shall the earth mourn, and the heavens above be black: because I have spoken it, I have purposed it, and will not repent, neither will I turn back from it.​

It is after the 1000 years that the eternal (infinite, unending) begins.

You have a confusion of finite and infinite, limited and unlimited, heaven and earth, as well as time, and phrasing.

 

[Adventageous]

Like I thought! That seems to sum up your theology. It is not based on hard Scripture.

I provided a simple common example (x2), and I also provided the scriptural example.

"... Consider this text:​

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2Co 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.​

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I ask similar questions, and one additional, as like unto the first ones.​

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How long is the timing from the moment of "absent from the body" "to be present with the Lord"?​

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What is the lynchpin word in the sentence that indicates the passage of time, whether short or long?​

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Is there any text which sheds light on the timing from one thing to the other?​

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1Th_4:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. ..." - Revelation 20:1-15 & the 1,000 years (aka Millennium) Bible Study​

 

[Hiddenthings]

I provided a simple common example (x2), and I also provided the scriptural example.

"... Consider this text:​

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2Co 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.​

​

I ask similar questions, and one additional, as like unto the first ones.​

​

How long is the timing from the moment of "absent from the body" "to be present with the Lord"?​

​

What is the lynchpin word in the sentence that indicates the passage of time, whether short or long?​

​

Is there any text which sheds light on the timing from one thing to the other?​

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1Th_4:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. ..." - Revelation 20:1-15 & the 1,000 years (aka Millennium) Bible Study​

This section of 1 Thessalonians does not provide sufficient detail about what happens after the saints are taken away. Where are they taken? For how long? What are they doing with the Lord concerning the state of the earth? And how will Christ deal with Israel while she is under attack at that time? To answer these, and many other questions, one must be proficient in handling Old Testament prophecy, something you have shown you do not yet understand.

 

[WPM]

I provided a simple common example (x2), and I also provided the scriptural example.

"... Consider this text:​

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2Co 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.​

​

I ask similar questions, and one additional, as like unto the first ones.​

​

How long is the timing from the moment of "absent from the body" "to be present with the Lord"?​

​

What is the lynchpin word in the sentence that indicates the passage of time, whether short or long?​

​

Is there any text which sheds light on the timing from one thing to the other?​

​

1Th_4:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. ..." - Revelation 20:1-15 & the 1,000 years (aka Millennium) Bible Study​

There is no "to be" in 2 Corinthians 5:8. That is put there by the translators. You build your argument upon aded words. 2 Corinthians 5:8 literally reads: "absent [Gr. ekdeemeesai] from the body, and present [Gr. endeemeesai] with the Lord."

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

It (the "day of the Lord" being 1000 years long) is right in the textual context of Peter's 2nd Epistle, please consider:

2Pe_3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.​

2Pe_3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.​

The word "day", whether in Hebrew, or koine Greek, or even English has a range of definition / use, and can mean anything from, a natural 24hr day (ie. "There are seven days in a week."; or "..

I don't need a lesson on what the word "day" can mean, but I've seen people try to relate 2 Peter 3:8 to 2 Peter 3:10 in this way before and it's completely wrong. The duration of the day of the Lord is not in view in 2 Peter 3:8 at all. You are taking the verse completely out of context. You noticeably failed to also quote verse 9, which shows the true context of verse 8.

2 Peter 3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. 9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. 10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.

The context of verse 8 relates directly to what is written in verse 9. Because of the fact that there is no difference between one day and a thousand years to the Lord from His eternal perspective, no one can claim that He is being slack/slow to keep the promise of His second coming (the promise previously mentioned in verse 4). From His eternal perspective where one day and a thousand years are no different to Him, He is not being slow to keep that promise. That is the context of verse 8. Not the duration of the day of the Lord. The day of the Lord is a sudden event that will bring "sudden destruction", according to Paul in 1 Thessalonians 5:2-3.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

There is no "to be" in 2 Corinthians 5:8. That is put there by the translators. You build your argument upon aded words. 2 Corinthians 5:8 literally reads: "absent [Gr. ekdeemeesai] from the body, and present [Gr. endeemeesai] with the Lord."

It's fine to have "to be" there because Paul was saying that to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord. That implies that when someone becomes absent from the body (when they physically/bodily die) they (their soul and spirit) immediately are then present with the Lord.

We should also look at verse 6 for the context of what Paul was saying in verse 8.

2 Corinthians 5:6 Therefore we are always confident, knowing that, whilst we are at home in the body, we are absent from the Lord:

While we are at home in the body (while we are physically/bodily alive), we are absent from the Lord. This implies that when we are no longer at home in the body (absent from the body), we are then immediately present with the Lord. I think this is very obvious, and I'm sure you agree, but SDAs like @Adventageous do not understand simple concepts like this because they are blinded by SDA doctrine.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

Scripture consistently teaches that Christ and His saints will reign from real thrones in God’s Kingdom. “For there are set thrones of judgment, the thrones of the house of David” (Ps. 122:5). Jesus promised His disciples, “In the regeneration… ye also shall sit upon thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel” (Matt. 19:28; Luke 22:30). John confirms this vision: “I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them” (Rev. 20:4).

Christ himself declares, “To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne” (Rev. 3:21). Even during his ministry, the expectation was understood plainly, as seen in the request, “Grant that my two sons may sit… in thy kingdom” (Matt. 20:21). Finally, Jesus taught that Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and all the prophets will be seen in the Kingdom of God, with many coming to sit down in the kingdom (Luke 13:28–29; Matt. 8:11).

Together, these passages testify to a visible, earthly reign of Christ, with His saints sharing in judgment and authority, not an unseen or purely spiritual rule.

You are very naive. None of those are literal thrones. Jesus said in Revelation 3:21, "To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.". Do you think God the Father sits on a literal throne? That would mean He somehow literally sits on heaven.

Isaiah 66:1 Thus says the Lord: “Heaven is My throne, And earth is My footstool. Where is the house that you will build Me? And where is the place of My rest?

Matthew 5:34 But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne:

All of the thrones you referenced symbolically refer to power and authority. Jesus is set down with His Father in His throne because all power and authority in heaven (the Father's throne) was given to Him after His resurrection (Matthew 28:18). Jesus does not sit on a literal throne. Him sitting on His throne and on the Father's throne refers to His authority over all of heaven and earth.

 

[Hiddenthings]

You are very naive. None of those are literal thrones. Jesus said in Revelation 3:21, "To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.". Do you think God the Father sits on a literal throne? That would mean He somehow literally sits on heaven.

Isaiah 66:1 Thus says the Lord: “Heaven is My throne, And earth is My footstool. Where is the house that you will build Me? And where is the place of My rest?

Matthew 5:34 But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne:

All of the thrones you referenced symbolically refer to power and authority. Jesus is set down with His Father in His throne because all power and authority in heaven (the Father's throne) was given to Him after His resurrection (Matthew 28:18). Jesus does not sit on a literal throne. Him sitting on His throne and on the Father's throne refers to His authority over all of heaven and earth.

So you also mean Jesus does not have a literal throne? David's throne was only symbolic also. Moving right along then....

 

[Adventageous]

There is no "to be" in 2 Corinthians 5:8. That is put there by the translators. You build your argument upon aded words. 2 Corinthians 5:8 literally reads: "absent [Gr. ekdeemeesai] from the body, and present [Gr. endeemeesai] with the Lord."

If you would carefully read my responses, my position had nothing to do with the words "to be" in English, but with the word "and" (G2532, "και", "kai"), which is in the texts cited. The word "and" is the lynchpin word denoting time between the previous event, and the event to follow, as I cited 1 Thes. 4:17 in connection to 2 Cor. 5:8 KJB, and gave several other examples in standard English sentences. The timing that the Christian is to be "with the Lord" is at the 2nd Advent, not in death. So my 'argument' is not based in "aded words" (sic), but in the word that is actually there, and the text as it plainly reads.

However, to comment upon your point about the English words "to be" in association with the word, G1736; "ενδημησαι", "endemesai" (and you only used the root word, not the actual word with proper ending in the koine Greek text of the NT itself; which makes me wonder, are you able to read koine Greek letters, not that you have to, just curious?), which is given in the Verb-Aorist-Infinite-Active, which means, "to be at home, to live in a place, to be at / among one's own people / place; stemming from two koine Greek words, G1722 (ἐν, en; meaning, 'in, among') and G1218 (δῆμος, demos; meaning 'people / public', like where English gets "demo-graphic" from)
". Feel free to consult the interlinear here - 2 Corinthians 5:8 Interlinear: we have courage, and are well pleased rather to be away from the home of the body, and to be at home with the Lord.

Hopefully, you may better understand my responses by this reply.

 

[Adventageous]

... That implies that when someone becomes absent from the body (when they physically/bodily die) they (their soul and spirit) immediately are then present with the Lord. ...

No, it doesn't as I showed from a connecting text (2 Cor. 5:8 KJB) of Paul in 1 Thes. 4:17.

1Th 4:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.​

​

2Co 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.​

However, most of modern religionists, who identify as "Christian" these days, since the counter-Reformation, take up spiritualism of Roman Catholicism and teach, like their 'mother', "immortal soul / spirit" theology instead, practicing 'necromancy', negating the entire point of the resurrection, or for any reason for Jesus to come back at all, and even negating the Everlasting Gospel itself:

Sincerely Dead - Dying, to know Jesus - Sincerely Dead Dying, To Know Jesus by brother Aaron Earnest : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive

Video of the same -

 

[WPM]

If you would carefully read my responses, my position had nothing to do with the words "to be" in English, but with the word "and" (G2532, "και", "kai"), which is in the texts cited. The word "and" is the lynchpin word denoting time between the previous event, and the event to follow, as I cited 1 Thes. 4:17 in connection to 2 Cor. 5:8 KJB, and gave several other examples in standard English sentences. The timing that the Christian is to be "with the Lord" is at the 2nd Advent, not in death. So my 'argument' is not based in "aded words" (sic), but in the word that is actually there, and the text as it plainly reads.

However, to comment upon your point about the English words "to be" in association with the word, G1736; "ενδημησαι", "endemesai" (and you only used the root word, not the actual word with proper ending in the koine Greek text of the NT itself; which makes me wonder, are you able to read koine Greek letters, not that you have to, just curious?), which is given in the Verb-Aorist-Infinite-Active, which means, "to be at home, to live in a place, to be at / among one's own people / place; stemming from two koine Greek words, G1722 (ἐν, en; meaning, 'in, among') and G1218 (δῆμος, demos; meaning 'people / public', like where English gets "demo-graphic" from)
". Feel free to consult the interlinear here - 2 Corinthians 5:8 Interlinear: we have courage, and are well pleased rather to be away from the home of the body, and to be at home with the Lord.

Hopefully, you may better understand my responses by this reply.

You miss my point, which you cannot refute. You are making something of words that are not in the Greek, just like you invented an unbiblical illustration to try and support your teaching. You are clearly manipulating Scripture to support your error.

 

[WPM]

No, it doesn't as I showed from a connecting text (2 Cor. 5:8 KJB) of Paul in 1 Thes. 4:17.

1Th 4:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.​

​

2Co 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.​

However, most of modern religionists, who identify as "Christian" these days, since the counter-Reformation, take up spiritualism of Roman Catholicism and teach, like their 'mother', "immortal soul / spirit" theology instead, practicing 'necromancy', negating the entire point of the resurrection, or for any reason for Jesus to come back at all, and even negating the Everlasting Gospel itself:

Sincerely Dead - Dying, to know Jesus - Sincerely Dead Dying, To Know Jesus by brother Aaron Earnest : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive

Video of the same -

One is talking about a future physical resurrection, the other is talking about Paul's death 2000 years ago, and where his spirit would go.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

So you also mean Jesus does not have a literal throne? David's throne was only symbolic also. Moving right along then....

You lack the discernment to be able to tell which is which. Is God the Father's throne that Jesus sits on a literal throne? Scripture says that His throne is heaven. Does Jesus sit on heaven? Yes, go ahead and move right along as you continue to not understand the difference between literal and figurative text.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

No, it doesn't as I showed from a connecting text (2 Cor. 5:8 KJB) of Paul in 1 Thes. 4:17.

1Th 4:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.​

​

2Co 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.​

You showed nothing except for your lack of discernment. You are not differentiating between the body and the soul and spirit. When a believer physically/bodily dies, their soul and spirit go to be with the Lord in heaven. Your false belief in soul sleep prevents you from understanding this.

However, most of modern religionists, who identify as "Christian" these days, since the counter-Reformation, take up spiritualism of Roman Catholicism and teach, like their 'mother', "immortal soul / spirit" theology instead, practicing 'necromancy', negating the entire point of the resurrection, or for any reason for Jesus to come back at all, and even negating the Everlasting Gospel itself:

You know your view is weak when you have to try to bring unrelated things into the discussion. My belief has absolutely nothing to do with Roman Catholicism. They believe that Jesus died and rose again from the dead, so I guess that means that is not true? This type of argument is pathetic and not something I'm going to take seriously.