The Bible on remarriage.

[ScottA]

That is a nice small piece of biblical interpretation, but it has nothing to do with the post you reacted to. People lived all over the world before the Bible or without ever hearing about the Mosaic Law.

You made/make it sound like you believe there were people or civilizations before Adam and Eve. That is what prompted me to comment. So you are either leaving the wrong impression or you are intentionally making a claim.

Please clarify. Do you believe there were people before Adam and Eve?

 

[HealthyShape]

You made/make it sound like you believe there were people or civilizations before Adam and Eve. That is what prompted me to comment. So you are either leaving the wrong impression or you are intentionally making a claim.

Be clear. Do you believe there were people before Adam and Eve?

I did not mention Adam and Eve at all. I was explicitly talking about the books of Exodus and Genesis. There were whole civilizations in this world before these books were written down.

 

[ScottA]

I did not mention Adam and Eve at all. I was explicitly talking about the books of Exodus and Genesis. There were whole civilizations in this world before these books were written down.

Okay, I went back and read what was said.

The problem is, you are assuming the Bible is only a literary account recorded well after the events therein occurred--as merely Moses' words on marriage, rather than God's.

As God's Word, when it was recorded or first made public, doesn't matter. The point being, that God spoke and established the terms of marriage from the beginning, that would have trickled down to some degree among all people from Adam and Eve on.

 

[Davy]

Did you know that according to the Bible and Paul, Christian men who are not pastors or deacons can remarry if his wife was unfaithful or is a pagan and wants to leave, but women can't? A woman can only remarry if her husband is dead, but only in the Lord. She is not bound to a pagan that leaves, but she must still wait until he is dead to remarry according to the law. 1 Cor. 7:39. A man can marry as many women as he can support, but he cannot marry a divorced woman.

Pastors or priests can only marry one virgin (at a time if widowed).

You are biased. That's not how Paul taught that...


1 Cor 7:10-16
10 And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband:
11 But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.

Notice Paul taught against... the idea of the man putting away his wife (for whatever other reason than adultery which means sexual intercourse outside the marriage. Jesus confirmed that in Matt.5:32; the Apostles in Acts 15:20).

12 But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.

Paul shows in the above case it is the woman's choice to stay or go.

13 And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.
14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.
15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.
16 For what knowest thou, O wife, whether thou shalt save thy husband? or how knowest thou, O man, whether thou shalt save thy wife?
KJV

Same thing for the man who does not believe. Paul applied that to BOTH situations of either the unbelieving husband or unbelieving wife. He was not biased toward the man.

I was stationed in the military in Spain, which is a Catholic by law type nation. You are born by law a Catholic there and must adhere to the policies of the Catholic Church. And the Catholic Church only allows divorce between husband and wife in the specific cases The Bible allows (which is death of one spouse, or one spouse caught in adultery). So when one spouse doesn't abide in Christ, (or maybe never intended to), they simply leave and go off somewhere to live their own life outside the marriage, committing adultery, but not allowed to divorce their spouse nor marry again. And believe it or not, making divorce difficult actually tied Spanish families closer together, made them work harder as a family. So the family atmosphere when I was there was very, very strong.

1 Cor 7:39
39 The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.
KJV

 

[1stCenturyLady]

You are biased. That's not how Paul taught that...


1 Cor 7:10-16
10 And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband:
11 But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.

Notice Paul taught against... the idea of the man putting away his wife (for whatever other reason than adultery which means sexual intercourse outside the marriage. Jesus confirmed that in Matt.5:32; the Apostles in Acts 15:20).

12 But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.

Paul shows in the above case it is the woman's choice to stay or go.

13 And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.
14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.
15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.
16 For what knowest thou, O wife, whether thou shalt save thy husband? or how knowest thou, O man, whether thou shalt save thy wife?
KJV

Same thing for the man who does not believe. Paul applied that to BOTH situations of either the unbelieving husband or unbelieving wife. He was not biased toward the man.

I was stationed in the military in Spain, which is a Catholic by law type nation. You are born by law a Catholic there and must adhere to the policies of the Catholic Church. And the Catholic Church only allows divorce between husband and wife in the specific cases The Bible allows (which is death of one spouse, or one spouse caught in adultery). So when one spouse doesn't abide in Christ, (or maybe never intended to), they simply leave and go off somewhere to live their own life outside the marriage, committing adultery, but not allowed to divorce their spouse nor marry again. And believe it or not, making divorce difficult actually tied Spanish families closer together, made them work harder as a family. So the family atmosphere when I was there was very, very strong.

1 Cor 7:39
39 The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.
KJV

I'm not biased against women! I AM a woman. What I'm saying is that even in 1 Corinthians 7 that sounds like both a man or a woman is not bound in the case of if the pagan spouse leaves, Paul ends the lesson that she can let her pagan husband leave, but must be alone until he dies. I assume the church would feed her. I find that interesting in light of all the posts against women teachers.

 

[Davy]

I'm not biased against women! I AM a woman. What I'm saying is that even in 1 Corinthians 7 that sounds like both a man or a woman is not bound in the case of if the pagan spouse leaves, Paul ends the lesson that she can let her pagan husband leave, but must be alone until he dies. I assume the church would feed her. I find that interesting in light of all the posts against women teachers.

But Paul applies that to the husband also, not just to a female spouse. And he didn't bring up the idea of divorce in that situation, but the subject of allowing... the unbelieving spouse to leave their spouse. It didn't say divorce.

 

[1stCenturyLady]

But Paul applies that to the husband also, not just to a female spouse. And he didn't bring up the idea of divorce in that situation, but the subject of allowing... the unbelieving spouse to leave their spouse. It didn't say divorce.

It doesn't say remarriage either. But verse 39 only refers to women, not men. Why?

 

[Davy]

It doesn't say remarriage either. But verse 39 only refers to women, not men. Why?

Because the 1 Cor.7:13-16 verses cover that same situation for unbelieving men leaving. Thus Paul is applying it to both spouses, not just about the woman leaving.