Armour of God
Well-Known Member
Your arguments are stupid. They prove nothing and I can't be bothered with them. You have your opinion I have mine
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Your arguments are stupid. They prove nothing and I can't be bothered with them. You have your opinion I have mine
@Soul.og
Ok I'm awake now.
The stupid part of your argument now is by saying that Joseph never demanded to be loved.
To be loved and to love is what is expected when a couple get married.
Joseph married Mary wanting a normal marriage like every other man. By claiming that Mary didn't submit to her husband means that Mary was a bad wife and bad woman
A just man still expects his wife to love himYou are arguing from a modern assumption of what a "normal man" wants, but Scripture describes Joseph as a "just man" (Matt.1:19) precisely because he put God’s plan and Mary’s honor above His own "rights"
Joseph was not a bad husband to expect his wife to love her. That is what is expected in a marriageTo call Mary a "bad wife" assumes Joseph was a "bad husband" who demanded sex despite the miraculous nature of Jesus's birth
There is no way that Joseph married Mary and did not expect to be loved. That would be a dysfunction relationship. The bible tells women to submit to their husbands.But 1 Cor. 7:5 explicitly says abstinence in marriage is permitted by "mutual consent" for spiritual purposes. If they both chose to dedicate their lives to raising the Son of God, they weren't "bad" spouses — they were perfectly obedient to God.
I'm not using personal feelings, you are, im using facts. A man marries a woman and wants to love her. That is part of the marriage agreement. The gospel is not about Mary's sex life it's a about the life of Christ. No scripture is required only common sense and factsUltimately, you are still using your personal feelings about marriage to fill in gaps where Scripture is silent. You still haven’t provided
Mary is breaking the marriage contract by not submitting to her husband if you believe she remained a virgin.If your argument depends on Joseph being unable to control himself or Mary being "bad" for serving God, then it’s based on human psychology, not the Word of God.
You have your opinion and I have mine. Neither of us is changing the opinion of the other. We must agree to disagree.By "love" you clearly mean "sex", but Scripture defines love as sacrificial service (Eph. 5:25), not a physical demand. Calling a marriage based on spiritual devotion "dysfunctional" is a modern secular opinion, not a scriptural one.
In 1 Cor. 7:5, Paul explicitly says that a husband and wife can abstain from sex for spiritual reasons by mutual consent. If Scripture allows for this, then by definition, it is not "dysfunctional". Joseph and Mary weren't a "normal couple" — they were the guardians of the Incarnate Word of God. To suggest Joseph would be "cheated" or Mary was a "bad wife" because they prioritized their unique mission over physical gratification ignores their total surrender to God.
Even the leading Protestant Reformers — who held the highest view of Scripture — disagreed with your "common sense" view. Martin Luther, John Calvin, and Ulrich Zwingli all studied the same Greek and the same verses on submission, yet they all held that Mary remained a Virgin and that Her marriage to Joseph was holy and complete without further children. They understood that a "just man" like Joseph would prioritize God's miracle over his own "rights".
Ultimately, you admitted "no scripture is required" for your position. That is the definition of a human tradition.
If you have to say "no Scripture is required" to win an argument about Scripture, you’ve already lost it. I’ll stick with the scriptural text that allows for a much holier and more sacrificial marriage than the one you are describing. Specifically, I will continue to rely on:
· Matt. 1:19, which calls Joseph "just" for his obedience, not his demands
· 1 Cor. 7:5, which proves marital abstinence for spiritual purposes is scriptural
I haven't made a claim about perpetual virginity in this thread. You are trying to shift the burden of proof. I haven't asked you to "disprove" a doctrine; I have asked you to prove your own claims using Scripture.
You claim that Joseph and Mary had sexual relations.
You claim that Mary would've been a "bad wife" if She didn't submit to demands of sexual relations by Her Spouse.
You claim that Joseph, Simon, James, and Judas were Mary’s biological sons, despite having admitted you don't have a scriptural verse that says so.
You claim the Koine Greek adelphos strictly refers to biological siblings.
You've argued that "no scripture is required" and relied on your own definition of a "normal marriage".
As it stands, you have not presented the following:
· A verse where Joseph demands "normal" marital relations
· A verse that says Mary had sexual relations with Joseph
· A verse where Mary is called a "bad wife"
· A verse that says Jesus's “brothers” — Joseph, Simon, James, and Judas — were Mary’s sons
· A verse naming any other person as a "son of Mary"
· Evidence adelphos strictly refers to biological siblings
If your position were scriptural, you would be quoting verses instead of relying on your own idea of "common sense" and personal assumptions about Joseph’s expectations. Until you can provide a text that actually supports your claims, your arguments remains a human assumption, not a scriptural fact.
Since you've admitted you "can't be bothered" with the actual historical, linguistic, and textual evidence, I'll take that as your concession.
Matt 1:25 :-You have your opinion and I have mine. Neither of us is changing the opinion of the other. We must agree to disagree.
You say that Mary didn't love Joseph but Scripture tells us that Jesus had siblings. You have to twist that to suit your own narrative which is highly unlikely. There are other words for cousin, neighbour, etc in Greek.
And if Mary never loved her husband then she is defying scripture that says women must submit to their husbands. You again have to assume that Joseph didn't want to love Mary which is obscene and highly unlikely again because he wouldn't have married her otherwise.
The likelihood of your claims are based on improbable assumptions which makes them highly unlikely
I believe that Mary was good and loved Joseph according to the demands of marriage and scripture. I believe they had children as the bible explicitly tells us that Jesus had siblings
Yo be honest I'm tired of debating her with her outrageous assumptions. I'm ready to just say she has her opinion and I have mine and leave it at that.Matt 1:25 :-
And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
soul relies 100% on a ridiculous interpretation of till/until which he 'thinks' confirms that Mary remained a virgin and so could not have had other children, GOOD LUCK AoG
AoG >>""Yo be honest I'm tired"" << IGNORE list works well :)Yo be honest I'm tired of debating her with her outrageous assumptions. I'm ready to just say she has her opinion and I have mine and leave it at that.
Election this week in SA. I just did my vote early. I'm sick of Labour and Liberal and I voted One Nation. Iv been voting for them for a few years now and I'm not afraid to say it.

Oh your so lucky. If it was up to me I wouldn't vote either but they give me a fine if I don't.AoG >>""Yo be honest I'm tired"" << IGNORE list works well :)
I'm lucky, when I moved home in 1992 I never updated to my current address & due to that have never had to vote.
Politics is like football, we all have our favorite team, mine is ABC, anyone but Collingwood![]()
Does not Jesus being referred to as the "First born" Luke 2:7 kind of indicate there were more to follow from Marys womb? If not then why was it not stated as "only" son or child?
There you are..... until she had given birth. After that, Joseph did "know her."The statement that Joseph “did not know Her until She had given birth” .....
RE: Michal, of course, because after, it was impossible!The word "until" in Matthew 1:25 doesn’t imply the opposite happened afterward. In scriptural Greek, heos hou only marks what happened before the birth, not what happened after. There are many examples in Scripture where "until" doesn’t mean a change took place later.
For instance, 2 Samuel 6:23 says Michal had no children until the day of her death — which obviously doesn’t mean she had children after she died.
Was I wrong to say Mary is Jesus’ biological mother when Scripture explicitly says He was conceived in Her womb, is the fruit of Her womb, and that She gave birth to Him?
In biology:
Calling a woman’s egg a “seed” is poetic, not scientific. The Bible uses “seed” metaphorically for descendants, but biology does not.
- Men produce sperm.
- Women produce ova (eggs).
So the statement:
“A biological mother gives birth after her SEED is fertilized by a male SEED”
is scientifically wrong because women do not have seed.
So their definition of conception is also inaccurate.
- Fertilization happens in the fallopian tube, not the womb.
- The embryo then travels to the uterus and implants.
Biologically, a mother is the woman who:
Mary fits all of these.
- Provides the egg
- Provides the womb
- Gestates the child
- Gives birth
Even in the virgin birth narrative:
Therefore, she is Jesus’s biological mother.
- Mary provides the egg
- Mary carries Jesus in her uterus
- Mary gives birth to him
The absence of a human father does not change that.
You’re making two different claims at the same time, and they contradict both biology and Christian theology. Let me separate them clearly:
1. If you want to talk biology, then biology has rules
Biologically:
If you claim Jesus had no biological mother, then you are no longer talking about biology at all.
- A child receives genetic material from the mother’s egg
- Pregnancy begins when a fertilized egg implants in the uterus
- A woman who provides the egg, the womb, and the birth is the biological mother
You can’t say “biologically, scientifically, Jesus has no mother” while rejecting the basic definitions of biology and science.
2. If you want to talk theology, then Christian theology also has rules
Christian doctrine teaches:
If Mary contributed nothing biologically, then:
- Jesus is eternally begotten of the Father in His divine nature
- Jesus is born of Mary in His human nature
- Jesus is “made of the seed of David according to the flesh” (Romans 1:3)
- Jesus is “born of a woman” (Galatians 4:4)
That position is not Christianity—it’s Docetism, the ancient heresy that Jesus only appeared to be human.
- Jesus is not descended from David
- Jesus is not “born of a woman”
- Jesus is not fully human
3. You can’t erase Mary’s motherhood by redefining words
Saying:
“Mary’s egg or Mary’s seed is not the point”
…is simply avoiding the fact that your argument collapses if Mary contributed the egg.
And saying:
“Christ has no father, no mother”
…confuses His divine nature (eternal, uncreated) with His human nature (born, embodied).
Christian theology has always held both.
4. The core issue is simple
Either:
A. Jesus was truly human
—which requires a human mother, and Mary fulfills that role biologically and theologically.
or
B. Jesus had no human biology at all
—which denies the Incarnation and contradicts Scripture.
You can choose A or B, but you can’t claim B and then call it “biologically” or “scientifically” true.
If you want to argue a theological point, make a theological argument. But once you invoke biology and science, you can’t redefine them to fit your conclusion.
1. You’re mixing metaphors about God’s Word with biological claims about Jesus’ humanity.
Those are two different categories. Christian theology has always distinguished between the eternal Word and the biological reality of the Incarnation.
You can’t use poetic language about God’s Word to override the concrete claims Scripture makes about Jesus’ real human birth.
2. Your position reduces to this:
That is not Christianity. That is Docetism or Gnosticism—the belief that Jesus only seemed human.
- Jesus is the Word of God
- God prepared a body
- Mary’s biology was irrelevant
- No fertilization occurred
- Jesus only appeared “in the likeness of a man”
Christian doctrine teaches that the Word became flesh, not that the Word merely resembled flesh.
If Mary contributed nothing biologically, then Jesus was not actually human. That contradicts Scripture and the entire doctrine of the Incarnation.
3. Scripture explicitly teaches real biological descent.
If Mary contributed nothing biologically, then:
- Jesus is “born of a woman” (Galatians 4:4)
- Jesus is “made of the seed of David according to the flesh” (Romans 1:3)
- Jesus is “descended from David” (2 Timothy 2:8)
- Jesus is “in every respect made like His brothers” (Hebrews 2:17)
Your view requires rejecting Paul, rejecting Hebrews, and rejecting the Gospels’ teaching that Jesus is truly human and truly descended from David.
- He is not “born of a woman”
- He is not “seed of David”
- He is not “descended from David”
- He is not “made like us in every respect”
- He is not human
4. You said: “God cannot reproduce offspring.” Christianity agrees—God does not sexually reproduce.
But Christianity also teaches:
The Incarnation is not God “reproducing.”
- God can create a human nature
- God can unite that human nature to the divine Word
- God did so through Mary’s real biological contribution
It is God taking on a real human nature through a real human mother.
Denying Mary’s biological role is denying the Incarnation itself.
5. Your view leads to a non‑human Jesus.
You claim:
That means:
- God prepared a body
- God placed it in Mary’s womb
- Mary contributed nothing
- Jesus was only “in the likeness of a man”
That is textbook Docetism.
- Jesus only appeared human
- His body was not derived from humanity
- He is not related to David
- He is not related to Mary
- He is not actually human
If Jesus’ body was not derived from Mary, then He is not human.
If He is not human, He cannot redeem humanity.
Your view unintentionally collapses the entire doctrine of salvation.
6. The core issue remains unchanged:
Either:
A. Jesus is truly human
—which requires a real human mother who contributes real human biology.
or
B. Jesus only appeared human
—which every branch of Christianity rejects as heresy.
There is no third option.
If you want to argue a non‑Christian metaphysics, that’s your choice.
But it’s not “biological,” and it’s not Christian theology.
- God prepared a body
- God placed it in Mary’s womb
- Mary contributed nothing
- Jesus was only “in the likeness of a man”
[*]He is not related to David
[*]He is not related to Mary
That means:
- Jesus only appeared human
- His body was not derived from humanity
- He is not actually human
You haven’t addressed the actual issue. You’ve restated your belief, but you haven’t answered the contradiction I pointed out:
You’re free to hold your view, but it doesn’t match either biology or historic Christian doctrine.
- If Jesus had no biological mother, your claim is not biological.
- If Jesus had no human ancestry, your claim is not Christian theology.
The points I raised about biology and Christian theology remain unanswered. If you ever want to engage those directly, I’m open to it.
1. Category Error: Creation vs. Incarnation
Adam’s creation and Jesus’ birth belong to different categories.
Scripture explicitly says Jesus is “born of a woman” (Galatians 4:4) and “seed of David according to the flesh” (Romans 1:3).
- Adam was created.
- Jesus was born.
Appealing to Adam’s creation does not address this and does not resolve the contradiction in your position.
Seems to me that you are arguing just to be argumentative.1. Category Error: Creation vs. Incarnation
Seems that you are projecting what you, yourself, are guilty of. Just what is your basic objection to the thread's OP of Jesus having brothers and Mary having children after her first born son? The text is not specific enough?You are using private definitions for:
Your definitions do not match:
- “born”
- “seed”
- “flesh”
- “made”
- “according to the flesh”
- normal language,
- scriptural usage,
- Christian theology, or
- biological categories.