Davidpt
Well-Known Member
Do you know of any examples where the word “sealed” is meant as permanent, never to be opened again? Besides in Daniel 9:24.
Though you weren't asking me that, here's my 2 cents, regardless.
In Daniel 9:24, the last thing in the list is anoint the most holy. Obviously, that wouldn't be the first thing in the list being fulfilled if it's listed last. Yet some would have us believe otherwise, that it was the first thing in the list fulfilled. Total nonsense, IMO. Plus, if one looks how the phrase 'most holy' is used elsewhere in the OT, I'm not seeing any place where it ever means a person.
And guess what? This in verse 27 is also part of the prophecy--and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
And guess what else? That poses a major problem if one insists the 70 weeks concluded before that part is fulfilled. Therefore, contradicting that the prophecy can't be closed until everything in verse 24 has been met, and that everything in verses 25-27 have been met. But who cares, right? It doesn't matter if anything is contradicted. The only thing that matters is, that we are correct, so there. The 70 weeks concluded in full within 3.5 years of Christ having gone to the cross, because we say so. We do not care that that contradicts that the vision can't stop until all conditions pertaining to verses 24-27 are met first. How in the world can we be wrong and the angel be correct? If anyone is not correct, it can't be us. That's the mindset we are dealing with here among interpreters this fits.
It is serious cherry picking to insist it means everything but this in verse 26--and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.---and this in verse 27---and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate. As if neither of those things are part of the prophecy. If they are not, then why did the angel list these things among verses 24-27 having to do with the prophecy?
Is one going to argue, then expected to be taken serious, that neither of those things have anything to do with prophecy, period. The angel is not predicting anything in those verses. Prophecy requires predicting things in advance. The angel was not doing that in either of those verses. Yeah, right, if you say so.
and to seal up(chatham khaw-tham' a primitive root; to close up; especially to seal:--make an end, mark, seal (up), stop) the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.
Daniel 12:4 But thou, O Daniel, shut up(catham saw-tham' or satham (Numbers 24:15) {saw-tham'}; a primitive root; to stop up; by implication, to repair; figuratively, to keep secret:--closed up, hidden, secret, shut out (up), stop.) the words, and seal(chatham khaw-tham' a primitive root; to close up; especially to seal:--make an end, mark, seal (up), stop) the book, [even] to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro,34 and knowledge shall be increased.
The former seems to be saying this. That once the 70 weeks have been fulfilled, the prophecy can stop because it has been fulfilled in full. Which means all conditions in verse 24 have been met. And that all conditions in verse 25-27 have been met.
As to the latter, it seems to be saying to keep sectret the words, thus the understanding, to the time of the end. But not the literal end of the age, but unto the time of the end where the final countdown begins. I tend to think the final countdown began with Christ's first coming 2000 years ago. Except that first coming never led to the end of this age. That is still future. Daniel 12: 2, 12-13 all prove it. And that you can't arrive at any of those verses without verse 11 preceding it first. And that Matthew 24:15-21 already proves that verse 11 belongs with Matthew 24:15-21.
After all, both accounts involve an unequaled time of trouble taking place during an AOD. We are to believe that those things are fulfilled twice at different times? Or, we are to believe that Daniel 12:11 is meaning during the days of A4E rather than when Matthew 24:15-21 is meaning? Or, we are to believe that Daniel 12:11 is meaning during 70 AD because we(meaning whoever it fits) take Matthew 24:15-21 to be involving 70 AD?
As to those 3 questions posed, my answer for all of them is no. Therefore, per my view it can only mean what I have been arguing all along, that Matthew 24:15-21 doesn't belong with 70 AD, it belongs with Daniel 12:11 where there is then a resurrection event at the end of this time of trouble, where this time of trouble has no equal prior to it nor after it, that there is no match for since the beginning of nations through that time. Where Matthew 24:21 interprets the beginning of nations as the beginning of the world. But not world 'ge', world 'kosmos'. And from what I can recall without looking first, nations came forth after the flood, not prior to it. Yet I could be wrong about that, but I don't think I am.
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