KJV goof ups

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KUWN

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He should have never put it in there!


The King James Version (KJV) was originally published, in 1611, by the royal

printer, Robert Barker. In the margins of that very first edition, there

were some 8,422 notes. Several of these notes indicate that a particular

verse itself may not be exactly correct.

For example, here is Luke 17:36 as it appears in the New King James Version

“Two men will be in the field: the one will be taken and the other left.”

Here is the note that appeared in the margin of that original 1611 edition:

“This 36 verse is wanting in most of the Greek copies.”


If you have a NIV, don’t bother looking this verse up. It is not in that

Translation. What the note said in essence was, “we have reason to believe that this verse should not be in here at all.”


Well, therein lies Textual Criticism, which is the study of what the

Original Autographs (these are the actual writings of the Apostles

themselves) exactly contained. In other words, before we can know what the

Bible says, we need to know what the Bible is. And this is no small task.

Once a group of Textual Critics finish their work, they turn their work over

to the printers to publish. That way, we can read the Bible.

In this article, I would like to draw our attention to some amusing mistakes

that found their way into the KJV. Fortunately, they have all been fixed

with subsequent Editions. Bear in mind, the King James Version went through

many revisions, including one the very next year in 1612. And again in 1613.

And many more after that.


Oddly enough, the KJV was translated from only about six Greek manuscripts

dating no earlier than the 9th century. Although there are more than 6,000

Greek manuscripts today, back in the 1600’s that was not the case.


The relatively few Greek manuscripts that are behind this KJV date between

the 9th and 14th centuries. Since the publishing of the first KJV, more

than 2,000 Greek manuscripts have been found. And some of these date back as

early as the 2nd century. (Remember, the earliest Greek manuscript

supporting the KJV is 800 years later.) With the new discovery of older

manuscripts, modern versions have come on the scene. The NIV is based on

different Greek manuscripts than is the KJV. That is why they differ at

places, as noted above.

Here is one example as to why they differ. When a man by the name of Erasmus

was putting together the Greek New Testament in the early 1500’s, he could

find no existing Greek manuscript that contained the words in 1 John 5:7,

which reads in the KJV, “For there are three that bear record in heaven; the

Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit: and these three are one.” It’s in the

KJV even to this day, but Erasmus refused to put it in his Greek Edition,

unless…

That was his mistake! Erasmus went on public record saying that if anyone

could produce even one Greek manuscript with the disputed passage in it, he

would put it in his next Greek Edition. (These disputed words were first

noticed in a not-so-old Latin version.) Erasmus’ first two Greek New

Testaments did not contain this passage.

Well, along comes an enemy of Erasmus, by the name of Edward Lee, and he

mysteriously produces a Greek manuscript (a very highly suspect one, I might

add) that contained these words. So, Erasmus, true to his word, yet being

convinced it would not do too much damage to sacred Scripture, unwillingly,

put it in his third Edition. Erasmus did note that he doubted its

authenticity. Right here is where my opening line fits in. He was true to

his word, but not the Word of God.

Well, no early Greek manuscript has this passage in it. Not one early

manuscript! No Greek manuscript dated in the first 5 centuries has this

passage in it. So, if we look at most modern versions, we simply will not

find that passage in it. There are a lot of these types of disputes in the

various manuscripts, practically all of them very insignificant. So, one set of Greek manuscripts read one way and another set of

manuscripts say something slightly different, and that’s why we have different versions today.

These differences in Greek manuscripts are actually to be expected. Let’s

suppose, for example, you asked 100 people to copy the book, Moby Dick. Do

you think any two would be exactly alike? Of course not! And if we took the

original book away, and then tried to recreate it, using only the 100

copies, how close to the original Moby Dick do you think we could get? Real

close! If on page 28, I wrote Moby Dock, and my brother, Tiger, wrote Muby

Dick, and 98 other people wrote Moby Dick, would you consider my wording

(Dock) or my brother’s wording (Muby) correct? There is your answer to the

Greek manuscripts. The variants are about as tough to work through as this

preceding example. (In fact, I know my brother well enough to also say the

he will misspell “receive” every time. He puts the i before the e.

Let me show you why some people are initially shocked when they begin their

study of Textual Criticism. The CT Greek New Testament has roughly 138,162

words. Taking all the 6,000 manuscripts together, there are somewhere

between 400,000 and 500,000 variations. That’s about 3+ variants PER WORD!

Maybe this will help. Let me give you a couple of those variants in one

small phrase in the Bible:

In John 4:1 some manuscripts read, “Then when Jesus knew.” Some other

manuscripts read, “Then when the Lord knew.” One manuscript has, “Then when

Jecus knew.” So, some say “Jesus” and some say “the Lord” and one misspelled

“Jesus.” (There are actually a few more that misspell “Jesus”)


So, how many variants do you see? Are you concerned with any of them? Here’s

the good news: That is just about the extent of the vast majority of

variants in the New Testament. As you can see, not knowing the history of the Bible makes us vulnerable to every wind of doctrine, or false claims against the Word. But when we add up all the ‘discrepancies’ and ‘variants’ there is absolutely nothing to be concerned with. Absolutely nothing! The preservation of the Word of God over the years, one could argue, has a supernatural element to it.

CONTINUE..........
 

KUWN

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I mentioned earlier that since the first publication of the KJV of 1611, of

which there have literally been thousands of corrections to it, many Greek

Manuscripts have been discovered. How one or two of those manuscripts were

discovered are interesting stories.

More than 200 years after the first KJV, in the Spring of 1844, a man by the

name Count Konstantin von Tischendorf, a man (genius) fluent in classical

languages and dialects, took a trip to Mount Sinai to visit a monastery. He

took this trip in hopes of discovering ancient biblical documents. The

monastery he visited was called St. Catherine’s, then occupied by Russian

monks. Initially, he was a bit disappointed when he was unable to find what

he was looking for. However, as he looked in a small room near the Library,

he noticed something very unusual in the trash can, of all places! His heart

began to race as he approached this waste basket. The contents, sheets of

‘paper’ written on animal skin, seemed all too familiar to him. He was well

aware that ancient documents were written on the very kind of “trash” he was

looking at. Well learned in Koine Greek, he picked up a sheet and began

reading it. It was the Old Testament! As he kept digging deeper, the New

Testament was also there. There were 129 pages of the oldest known

recordings of the Bible, written almost 1,500 years earlier. Who knows how

many pages had already been burned to warm those Russian monks.

Let me add an interesting twist (the second story). Tischendorf had a friend

named Samuel Tragelles. Tragelles was also a scholar. Excited by von

Tischendorg’s discovery, and in hopes of finding more biblical manuscripts

himself, Tragelles asked the Pope if he could visit the Vatican library. The

Pope agreed to let him in, but put some unusual restrictions on him. The

Pope insisted that he not bring any writing material with him into the

library. To insure compliance, he would be searched on his way in and out.

Additionally, he was only allowed to sit there for six hours a day. All of

this Tragelles agreed to, and did so for three months. Tragelles discovered

a document similar to that of his friend, Tischendorf. Rather than notifying

the Pope that he had just stumbled upon an ancient manuscript of the Bible,

he took another route. You may not believe this, but Tragelles, apparently

endowed with a great memory, memorized the entire manuscript, piece by

piece, not just the Greek and Hebrew, but the Aramaic as well! What he did

was memorize a small portion, about six hour’s worth, then went to his

personal room and wrote down what he had memorized. After three months, he

was able to memorized most of the Bible in its original languages!

Hope you enjoyed that brief digression.


Well, I think I said I wanted to list a few amusing mistakes that the

printers made while publishing the KJV. Here they are:


In the KJV, the seventh commandment was slightly altered. The word “not” was

accidentally omitted. With this oversight, the KJV read, “You shall commit

adultery.” Not sure how many copies were circulated before this omission was

noticed. I do know this, after this error was duly noted, and corrected I

might add, scoffers labeled this edition the “Wicked Bible.”


In the garden of Gethsemane, the first KJV had “Judas” going there to pray,

not Jesus.

When John in Revelation 21:1 saw the new heaven and earth, he described it

as having “no more sea.” The KJV, in an early edition, once again omitted a

word (no). Hence, in this version’s rendition of the new heaven and earth,

there was actually ‘more sea.’

Here’s a good one. In 1 Corinthians 6:9, it’s not the ‘righteous’ who

inherit the kingdom, it’s the “unrighteous.” Not so sure I don’t like that

better!

John 5:14 is a close second for the funniest. After Jesus heals the

paralytic man, he admonishes him to “sin no more.” However, two letters

where reversed in this KJV. Can you guess which two? Yup! If the printer was

right, that man was asked to sin ‘on’ more! Must have been the same person

who worked on the Commandments.

Psalm 119:161 was goofed. But in this case, we can see why. Here is that

verse as it should have appeared:

Princes persecute me without a cause,

But my heart stands in awe of Your word.

Notice how the printers subliminally personalize it, albeit by mistake. Here

is how it appeared in that KJV:

Printers persecute me without a cause,

But my heart stands in awe of Your word.

In Luke, you recall when Jesus told Peter that he would deny Him three

times. Nope, It was Philip, as far as the KJV printers could tell. At least

both names start with a P.

Although a rather obscure passage, the mistake in Ezekiel 47:10 should have

been caught (get it?). In this verse, the fisherman stand (that’s the

correct wording), but according to the KJV, the fish stand. That would be

quite a feat.


This last one I mention is found in the section of Scripture from which I

chose the name for my daughter. The KJV got all the words right, they just

put two in the wrong order. As we can see they switched them. Here is how it

should have appeared:
“Then Rebekah and her damsels arose, and they rode on the camels and

followed the man.”

Now, I close with this final error. This is how it actually appeared in the

KJV. Talk about a damsel in distress!

“Then Rebekah and her camels arose, and they rode on the damsels and

followed the man.”

How in the world can anyone make a misteak like that?
 

Ronald Nolette

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The King James Version (KJV) was originally published, in 1611, by the royal

printer, Robert Barker. In the margins of that very first edition, there

were some 8,422 notes. Several of these notes indicate that a particular

verse itself may not be exactly correct.
I love the KJKV! I have used it for over forty years and I am so very comfortable with it.

It also is the translation that has the most linguistic aids tied to it.

However, when a KJV only guy came to me and challenged me ( I was reading teh NIV then), I challenged him. He gave me a book by a KJV only author and I asked him to give me 20 of those suppossed errors in teh NIV based on teh KJV asnd I would look them up. I used a Strongs concordance only tied to the KJV and the results were startling.

Of the 20 examples he chose claiming the KJV was superior the results were 16 to 3 to 1.

One was tied and the NIV translated the greek better 16 times!

I still use the KJV predominantly but buttress it with both Greek and Hebrew study works. I think anyone who wishes to be a serious student of Scripture should learn at least a basic understanding of the biblical languages and culture, customs and idiomatic use of language .
 
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Davy

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I love the KJKV! I have used it for over forty years and I am so very comfortable with it.

It also is the translation that has the most linguistic aids tied to it.

However, when a KJV only guy came to me and challenged me ( I was reading teh NIV then), I challenged him. He gave me a book by a KJV only author and I asked him to give me 20 of those suppossed errors in teh NIV based on teh KJV asnd I would look them up. I used a Strongs concordance only tied to the KJV and the results were startling.

Of the 20 examples he chose claiming the KJV was superior the results were 16 to 3 to 1.

One was tied and the NIV translated the greek better 16 times!

I still use the KJV predominantly but buttress it with both Greek and Hebrew study works. I think anyone who wishes to be a serious student of Scripture should learn at least a basic understanding of the biblical languages and culture, customs and idiomatic use of language .

The battle is not simply about the 'idea' of translation, but about the SOURCES of the translation.

The KJV New Testament used the Textus Receptus (Received Text) that Erasmus in the 16th century translated from Traditional Greek manuscripts known as the Majority Texts (because they make up the majority of Greek NT manuscripts, over 2,000 of them). Those were mainly from the texts that came out of Antioch where the label Christian was first used for those in Christ. He referred to the Alexandrian text but deemed it unsuitable and didn't use it. The Alexandria, Egypt Christian school existed as a separate component in early Church history.

But around the 11th century, the school of Textual Criticism, a branch of academia, started questioning the various Greek texts for the New Testament in order to provide better accuracy of the Greek texts. Textual Criticism eventually began using different... Greek texts other than the Traditional Greek texts of the early Church. And in the late 1880's, British Bible scholars Wescott and Hort created their 'own' Greek text for the revision committee, and gave a copy in secret to each scholar on the committee, and told them to not divulge which Greek text they were going by. They relied more on the Alexandrian text, the Codex Vaticanus which was only discovered in the Vatican around 1450 A.D., and the Codex Sinaiticus which was partially discovered in a waste basket by Tischendorf at a monastery in the 1850's. Their main claim is that these codices are more accurate simply because they say they are older than the Traditional Greek texts (Majority Text). English Bible translations prior to Wescott and Hort mainly used the Traditional Greek Text.

And now, even the NKJV translation of 1980 uses Wescott and Hort's corrupt Greek text that they themselves made. Nelson Publishers owns the rights to the NKJV, and says those other textual references are contained in the NKJV footnotes. But that's not true, as many of the readings of the KJV have been modified to fit the Alexandrian text.

All modern English Bible translations past the 1800's are based on Wescott and Hort's Greek text, and the Alexandrian text which have not been proven to be the oldest, nor the best, Greek texts of the New Testament.

 

shepherdsword

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Of the 20 examples he chose claiming the KJV was superior the results were 16 to 3 to 1.

One was tied and the NIV translated the greek better 16 times!
Then they were using the Nestle's text as a comparison and not the Textus Receptus. I prefer the TR for several reasons. One of which is that I think it's easier to leave part of a text out than add margin notes into the actual text. However, that's just me. I know the majority of scholars disagree.
 

Ronald Nolette

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Then they were using the Nestle's text as a comparison and not the Textus Receptus. I prefer the TR for several reasons. One of which is that I think it's easier to leave part of a text out than add margin notes into the actual text. However, that's just me. I know the majority of scholars disagree.
I desire any believer to find and study any of the many English translations.

We must remember that an English bible is a translation , and in the case of it coming from the Septuagint and Latin it is a translation of a translation. when one goes from one language to another, impact may be lessened. That does not mean doctrine is corrupt, but a serious bible stiudent should have Greek and Hebrew to study as well. we are 2 millenia removed from the NT.
 

ScottA

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Several of these notes indicate that a particular

verse itself may not be exactly correct.

For example, here is Luke 17:36 as it appears in the New King James Version

“Two men will be in the field: the one will be taken and the other left.”
In Luke 17:36 the word "men" is actually not in the KJV, thus italicized (yet it is in the NKJV).

But what about verse 35, any footnotes on it? Because the word "women" is not in that verse either, leaving no notation of gender except by translation or assumption, meaning conjecture. But with verse 35, even without verse 36, the message is very much the same--thus, not a problem without verse 36.

The bigger problem is assuming gender, as God's use of gender is very specifically rooted in Him being portrayed as male, while people are ultimately portrayed as female--having been taken out of God as Eve (a female) was taken out of Adam (a male), in that first image of God, presented by God, then confirmed in His use of "Bride" to describe male and female alike, all being born of Eve and thus likewise taken out of man/God according to that image.
 

David Lamb

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In Luke 17:36 the word "men" is actually not in the KJV, thus italicized (yet it is in the NKJV).
Yes it's in the NKJV, and it is italicized, just as it is in the KJV, to show that the word was inserted by the translators to make normal English. If, in English, someone said, "Two were in the field," the obvious question arises, "Two what? Sheep, cattle-rustlers, farmers, insects?"
 
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ScottA

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Yes it's in the NKJV, and it is italicized, just as it is in the KJV, to show that the word was inserted by the translators to make normal English. If, in English, someone said, "Two were in the field," the obvious question arises, "Two what? Sheep, cattle-rustlers, farmers, insects?"
Good point!

But even so, the translators have presumed to add where God did not, nor did He need to, for the overall passage is already about people.

Thus, inserting gender into the passage where it was not, does two things: It shows us that men are prone to see things their own way and even take liberties that God actually chose not to. But then He also allowed that weakness of men to highlight and strengthen--"My strength is made perfect in weakness"--gender as a God-given distinction to be considered all the more. Which then has it's root in creation and the image of God cast into mankind of being taken out of God (male) compared with the example of Eve (female) and here multitude of children (the fallen).
 

KUWN

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Yes it's in the NKJV, and it is italicized, just as it is in the KJV, to show that the word was inserted by the translators to make normal English. If, in English, someone said, "Two were in the field," the obvious question arises, "Two what? Sheep, cattle-rustlers, farmers, insects?"
It should be pointed out that the gender in 17.36 is masculine, while in 17.35 the gender is feminine. Also, verse 36 does not appear in the oldest and best manuscripts,

17:35 δύο ἔσονται ἀλήθουσαι ἐπὶ τὸ αὐτό μία (feminine) παραληφθήσεται, καὶ ἡ ἑτέρα ἀφεθήσεται17:35 Two women shall be grinding together; the one shall be taken, and the other left.
17:36 δύο ἔσονται ἐν τῶ ἀγρῷ ὁ ἑἷς (masculine) παραληφθήσεται καὶ ἕτερος ἀφεθήσεται17:36 Two men shall be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left.

I am not so sure I am ready to say that the translators inserted these to make normal English. That is probably true in many passages. But translators are also interpreters. Many times the Greek omits words because the language syntax omits them. Though they are not in the sentence in Greek, any first century Greek reader would supply them. Here is an example:

James 2:24 Here is how the KJV translates this verse:

Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.

James 2:24 is to be translated as follows:

You see then how that by works a man is justified, and not only justified by faith.

ὁρᾶτε ὅτι ἐξ ἔργων δικαιοῦται ἄνθρωπος καὶ οὐκ ἐκ πίστεως μόνον.

μόνον is not an adjective but an adverb!! Therefore you have to supply the word δικαιοῦται.

Notice that I completed the word justified in the second part of the sentence, it was not just added to the Greek it was to be put there. Words were not "added" as if the Greek doesn't have it in the verse, you just have to supply it to complete the thought in Greek, and in this instance in English also, especially in English.

You have to distinguish between adding (interpreting) and completing (translating).

Finally, because of this sentence and other verses in the NT, we know that there are two justifications that can be applied to the believer. One justification is Godward, and one is manward. Abraham was justified before God when he was saved (Gen 12, 15) and he was justified before man when he offered Isaac (Gen 22).
 

Wrangler

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All modern English Bible translations past the 1800's are based on Wescott and Hort's Greek text

We must remember that an English bible is a translation , and in the case of it coming from the Septuagint and Latin it is a translation of a translation.
I’ve heard these lies all my adult life. Ever actually read modern translation notes? I have!
 

Davy

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I’ve heard these lies all my adult life. Ever actually read modern translation notes? I have!

Don't know what lies you speak of. Wescott and Hort's own... Greek NT translation is what the revision committee of 1870 used for the Authorized Version when all the revision committee was supposed to do was to address 'obvious' translation errors. Wescott and Hort instead sought to totally get away from the Greek Textus Receptus (Received Text) for the New Testament that the KJV translators used, as Wescott and Hort said in their personal letters to each other that were made public after their deaths. Spurgeon said their Greek NT manuscript amounted to a totally brand new Greek text, and not the Traditional Text at all.

In the Preface of the NKJV Bible, Nelson Publishers remarked how its new version included use of the Critical Text, which includes Wescott and Hort's new Greek text. Their claim is these modifications are noted in the footnotes.

The fact is, the 1611 KJV Bible did not... use the Critical Text, which the Critical Text uses Wescott and Hort's new Greek NT translation based on Codex Vaticanus (found in the Vatican in the 1450's) and Codex Sinaitius (found in a Greek monastery in the1850's), Alexandrian texts.
 

David Lamb

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In the Preface of the NKJV Bible, Nelson Publishers remarked how its new version included use of the Critical Text, which includes Wescott and Hort's new Greek text. Their claim is these modifications are noted in the footnotes.
I have just looked through the Preface in my NKJV. It includes:

"The New King James Version has been based on the Received Text, thus perpetuating the tradition begun by William Tyndale in 1525 and continued by the 1611 translators in rendering the Authorised Version" (i.e. the KJV)
 

Davy

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I have just looked through the Preface in my NKJV. It includes:

"The New King James Version has been based on the Received Text, thus perpetuating the tradition begun by William Tyndale in 1525 and continued by the 1611 translators in rendering the Authorised Version" (i.e. the KJV)

Yes, it does include that also.

But... here is what else the NKJV contains if one reads further in that Preface...


Taken from the NKJV Preface by Nelson Publishers:

"Where significant variations occur in the New Testament Greek manuscripts, textual notes are classified as follows:
  1. NU-Text — There variations from the traditional text generally represent the Alexandrian or Egyptian type of text described previously in "The New Testament Text." They are found in the Critical Text published in the twenty-sixth edition of the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament (N) and in the United Bible Societies’ third edition (U), hence the acronym, "NU-Text."
  2. M-Text — This symbol indicates points of variation in the Majority Text from the traditional text, as also previously discussed in "The New Testament Text." It should be noted that M stands for whatever reading is printed in the published Greek New Testament According to the Majority Text, whether supported by overwhelming, strong, or only a divided majority textual tradition.
The textual notes reflect the scholarship of the past 150 years and will assist the reader to observe the variations between the different manuscript traditions of the New Testament. Such information is generally not available in English translations of the New Testament."​
 

David Lamb

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Yes, it does include that also.

But... here is what else the NKJV contains if one reads further in that Preface...


Taken from the NKJV Preface by Nelson Publishers:

"Where significant variations occur in the New Testament Greek manuscripts, textual notes are classified as follows:
  1. NU-Text — There variations from the traditional text generally represent the Alexandrian or Egyptian type of text described previously in "The New Testament Text." They are found in the Critical Text published in the twenty-sixth edition of the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament (N) and in the United Bible Societies’ third edition (U), hence the acronym, "NU-Text."
  2. M-Text — This symbol indicates points of variation in the Majority Text from the traditional text, as also previously discussed in "The New Testament Text." It should be noted that M stands for whatever reading is printed in the published Greek New Testament According to the Majority Text, whether supported by overwhelming, strong, or only a divided majority textual tradition.
The textual notes reflect the scholarship of the past 150 years and will assist the reader to observe the variations between the different manuscript traditions of the New Testament. Such information is generally not available in English translations of the New Testament."​
Yes, that refers to footnotes, not to the translation itself. I know that some editions of the KJV included footnotes or margin notes with words like: "Some manuscripts do not include this verse." Marginal notes and footnotes are not translations of God's inspired word.
 

Davy

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I have just looked through the Preface in my NKJV. It includes:

"The New King James Version has been based on the Received Text, thus perpetuating the tradition begun by William Tyndale in 1525 and continued by the 1611 translators in rendering the Authorised Version" (i.e. the KJV)

What got me looking into the NKJV was during a Bible study with some brethren at their home they were using the NKJV while I was using the 1611 KJV. My friend kept making balking noises when I read from the KJV, so I asked what was the matter. And he said his NKJV didn't say the same thing as the KJV. That shows the translators of the NKJV have... modified the 1611 KJV, using the NU-Text (Critical Text, which included Wescott and Hort's 1880's new Greek NT translation, and translations from the Alexandrian manuscripts).
 

PeterAndroz

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I have just looked through the Preface in my NKJV. It includes:

"The New King James Version has been based on the Received Text, thus perpetuating the tradition begun by William Tyndale in 1525 and continued by the 1611 translators in rendering the Authorised Version" (i.e. the KJV)
MKJV not NKJV
The MKJV is for those who like the KJV accuracy but dislike the thee, thou, ye etc
 

Davy

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Something else to note about British Bible scholars Wescott and Hort. They were involved in the Occult. They admit it in their personal letters to each other. They dabbled in Spiritism. One can find their letters on archive.org, photo-copies of the originals.
 

David Lamb

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What got me looking into the NKJV was during a Bible study with some brethren at their home they were using the NKJV while I was using the 1611 KJV. My friend kept making balking noises when I read from the KJV, so I asked what was the matter. And he said his NKJV didn't say the same thing as the KJV. That shows the translators of the NKJV have... modified the 1611 KJV, using the NU-Text (Critical Text, which included Wescott and Hort's 1880's new Greek NT translation, and translations from the Alexandrian manuscripts).
I don't think that follows at all. Because the English language has changed over the past few hundred years since 1611, of course the NKJV is not always going to use exactly the same words as the KJV. For example, when the KJV used the phrase, "fetched a compass", it meant "turned around", so we have differences between the two translations, such as:

KJV
(Act 28:13) And from thence we fetched a compass, and came to Rhegium: and after one day the south wind blew, and we came the next day to Puteoli:

NKJV
(Act 28:13) From there we circled round and reached Rhegium. And after one day the south wind blew; and the next day we came to Puteoli,

Another example is the KJV word "carriages":

KJV
(Act 21:15) And after those days we took up our carriages, and went up to Jerusalem.

NKJV
(Act 21:15) And after those days we packed and went up to Jerusalem.

Such differences between the KJV and the NKJV are nothing to do with which manuscripts were used, but with what words/phrases mean in English now, compared to what they meant in 1611.