Davy
Well-Known Member
NKJV Affects Doctrine | Articles | kjbapsotolics.com
The NKJV presents doctrinal dilema for Apostolics. There are several enormous doctrinal deficiencies in the NKJV. Let us examine some of them.
KJV goof ups
- Thread starter KUWN
- Start date
-
Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.
You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
MKJV, you didn't, I did for those who like the KJV accuracy but in an easier to read format rather than the NKJV controversy.
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
I followed the link. Just to take two of the verses the link quotes as examples, the linked document states:NKJV Affects Doctrine | Articles | kjbapsotolics.com
The NKJV presents doctrinal dilema for Apostolics. There are several enormous doctrinal deficiencies in the NKJV. Let us examine some of them.www.kjbapostolics.com
"The command to ‘study’ the Bible is changed to 'be diligent' from II Timothy 2:15 thereby removing the Bible's only admonition to 'study."
However, the word translated in the KJV as "study" occurs several times in the New Testament. Here is the entry for the words from Strong's Concordance:
"G4704
σπουδάζω
spoudazō
spoo-dad'-zo
From G4710; to use speed, that is, to make effort, be prompt or earnest: - do (give) diligence, be diligent (forward), endeavour, labour, study.
Total KJV occurrences: 11"
Only in 2 Timothy 2:15 does the KJV translate it as "study." Elsewhere, it is translated as "endeavour", "do diligence," etc. For example:
“Do thy diligence to come shortly unto me:” (2Ti 4:9 KJV)
Another example is:
"Changes ‘science’ to ‘knowledge’ in I Timothy 6:20, thereby radically changing Paul’s charge here."
The word translated as "science" in the KJV is the Greek word "gnosis", which means "knowledge", so knowledge generally, not "science" in the sense of things like chemistry, biology and physics. Indeed the same Greek word occurs in 28 other places in the New Testament, and in all those 28, the KJV translates it as "knowledge." For example:
“To give knowledge of salvation unto his people by the remission of their sins,” (Lu 1:77 KJV)
Those are merely examples. However, they show that the NKJV isn't as mistaken as suggested by the article you linked to.
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
- Feb 14, 2021
- 20,732
- 8,987
- 113
- 57
- Faith
- Christian
- Country
- United States
- Gender
- Male
Davy
Well-Known Member
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
It is strange that instead of answering what I posted, you just post a link to another website, which doesn't address the points i raised. However, it is, of course, entirely up to you how you choose to respond, so I'm nt really complaining.The New King James Version Is Dangerous | TheBibleStands
thebiblestands.org
In 1611 the word study meant more than book study; and, considering the Greek word used in 2 Timothy 2:15, spoudazō, "study" wasn't really a bad choice by the translators in 1611. Back then, one of the word's meanings was: To endeavour, make it one’s aim, set oneself deliberately to do something.—Oxford English Dictionary, 2nd Edition, Vol. 16, p. 981. The verse is saying to endeavor and make it your aim to present yourself approved by God. That is in fact what the Greek means as well. That's why it's translated differently now; the old word doesn't convey the meaning of the Greek today as it would've in 1611. That's one of the pitfalls of relying on an archaic translation today.
Davy
Well-Known Member
You are not headmaster of interpreting Bible translations. One does not have to agree with what you post anymore than what you do with rejecting what others post.
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
I am truly sorry if my post made me sound like a headmaster; that was certainly not my intention. And of course, what you say about not having to agree with what others post is right. On a forum like this, we are bound to encounter different view and beliefs to our own. Anyway, I do apologise for anything I wrote that made you think I was acting like a headmaster, or saying that everybody must believe what I believe.
Davy
Well-Known Member
There are reasons that I prefer the 1611 KJV over all... other English Bible translations, and it has to do with things God included in the KJV that other Bibles do not have. And one of the best, if not the best KJV study Bible still is E.W. Bullinger's The Companion Bible which he put together in the late 1800's. It has the 1611 KJV in the left margin, and Bullinger's scholar level notes in the righthand margin. It contains more of those specific matters that I speak of than any other English translation. And I do not agree with everything Bullinger believed, like a pre-trib rapture. He lived in a time when that doctrine became popular and got sucked into it. Yet the majority of his scholarship is top notch, and reveals some "strong meat" Bible teachings which many brethren simply cannot handle. Just the 198 Appendixes in the back that Bullinger compiled are worth having a copy.
DV --- There are reasons that I prefer the 1611 KJV over all
With the MKJV along side to help with some words/phrases.
+++++
DV - And I do not agree with everything Bullinger believed, like a pre-trib rapture.
Does your 'rapture' teach that a believer can become unsaved eg take MarkOf beast ?
Davy
Well-Known Member
No, for that I used other Bible study sources, classics which God has provided us with through scholars He has called, like the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexicon, Green's Interlinear, etc.
Can a believer on Jesus Christ be deceived at the end of this world by the coming false-Messiah, thinking he will be our Lord Jesus? YES!
That is one of the main purposes of man's false pre-trib rapture theory. It is designed to lead the 'believer' to want to be raptured by the first supernatural Messiah that shows up, thinking it will be Lord Jesus. It won't be, it will be a false-Messiah as Lord Jesus warned those who listen to Him instead. So there's how those can be deceived; it's because of who they listen to, i.e., to men instead of God in His Word.
The false pre-trib rapture school even wrongly teaches the first one 'taken' per Luke 17 will be those in Christ when it does not mean that. Jesus' disciples asked Him, "Where, Lord?" about those first ones 'taken', and Jesus said, "For wheresoever the carcase is, there will the eagles be gathered together." (Matt.24:28 version of Luke 17:37). The Greek actually uses the word for carcase, so that's not a mistranslation. Jesus was pointing to those first ones taken being like a dead carcase, and will be wherever the fowls are gathered to eat on a dead carcase, but all meant in the spiritual sense.
In 2 Cor.11, Apostle Paul warned that he feared some brethren might fall away to the "another Jesus", to "another gospel" other than what he and the Apostles preached. He said he wants to present the believer as "a chaste virgin" to Christ, our True Husband (spiritual sense). Paul was pulling from the parable in Isaiah 54.
The symbolic woman whose womb remains barren represents the chaste virgin idea. And the symbolic woman who is married represents the harlot who did not remain a chaste virgin. In Luke 23, Jesus warns the daughters of Jerusalem and their children about being like that harlot who will be found with child (spiritually) whose paps did give suck. When Jesus returns, those harlot deceived will say about the barren, "Blessed are the barren...".
Last edited:
Do you believe that a saved believer today/now can become UNsaved/UNsealed/UNjustified/UNrighteous based on the Gospel as taught by Christ through Paul ?
If so, please the specific verses >>>FROM PAUL<<<
Thx
++++
The Gospel :-
Gal 1:11-12
11But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
12For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.
1 Cor 15:1-4
1Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
2By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
3For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:
Eph 1:13
13In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise,
++++++++++++
The PERFORMANCE conditions :-
Titus 3:
5Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
Gal 2:
16Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
Rom 3:
28Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
Eph 2:
8For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
9Not of works, lest any man should boast.
Rom 4:
5But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
Rom 5:
1Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ:
Davy
Well-Known Member
You mean, do I believe a believer on Jesus Christ means Once Saved, Always Saved?
NO!
OSAS is a man-made doctrine that uses (abuses actually) 'specific' verses to CREATE that doctrine with. If you doubt this, then explain... WHY Apostles Paul spent so much of his Epistles WARNING BRETHREN AGAINST FALLING AWAY.
Oh, I forgot, those on man's false OSAS doctrine don't preach or teach those 'warnings' contained in Paul's Epistles, so the majority of their congregations don't even know about that.
and the verses >>>FROM PAUL <<< that teach a saved/sealed/justified/made righteous believer can become UNsaved, UNsealed, UNjustified, UNrigteous are ?
The verses Davy, the verses :)
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
Agreed. I would add, "Where is the verse that says that a born again believer can become "un-born?"
An analogy from Jesus' and Nicodemus' conversation:
Jesus replied, “Very truly I tell you, no one can see the kingdom of God unless they are born again (the first time).”
“How can someone be born when they are old?” Nicodemus asked. “Surely they cannot enter a second time into their mother’s womb to be born!”
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
I don't understand what you mean by "born again (the first time)." The word "again" means it must be a second birth. Are you saying that to be saved one has to be born again, and then born again for a second time?
Welllll there is this. You have to be born twice to die twice:
Jude 12 These are spots in your feasts of charity, when they feast with you, feeding themselves without fear: clouds they are without water, carried about of winds; trees whose fruit withereth, without fruit, twice dead, plucked up by the roots;
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
True, but I don't see that to be saved, one needs to be born again twice. Jesus said to Nicodemus, "You must be born again", not "You must be born again twice."
Similar threads
