Davidpt
Well-Known Member
Greetings David, I hope your wife is feeling better.
The reason is that some who are Amill as far as time (a thousand years) is concerned, are also Preterit when it comes to what shall become of apostate Israel. Since they have embraced the doctrine of Preterism (although in some cases Partial only), embracing Preterism in any manner appears to make them more concerned about what shall become of apostate Israel, which keeps them from spiritually discerning how much of what Christ says applies not to ethnic Jews, but to His church on earth as the Gospel of the Kingdom of God through Christ is being proclaimed.
Can you explain why you equate time marching on as a gap of 2000 years? I view the Olivet Discourse from Matthew, Mark, and Luke are all speaking of the same thing but framing them slightly differently or from differing points of view, not altogether different views. I do appreciate how you are applying spiritual understanding that is not limited to Amillennialists but is the way much of the Bible should be understood by all believers when speaking of the spiritual reality of the Kingdom of God in heaven.
Quoting you "Luke 21:24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.
All of these things literally happened 2000 years ago---And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations"
How do you justify saying that ALL literally happened 2000 years ago? Where do we read the times of the Gentiles being fulfilled 2000 years ago? Is Luke writing of what shall befall the physical nation, or is he writing of a spiritual, even holy nation? OR is he referring to both the siege and also Jerusalem from above which has been being trodden down by gentiles (unbelievers) since Christ came with the spiritual Kingdom of God?
My wife is not sick or anything, it's just that she is aging. When I was 25 I married a woman 15 years older than me. I am now 68 and that she is 84
Maybe 'gap' is the wrong term? I'm simply saying that between Luke 21:20 and verse 27 there are 2000 years involved. But between Mathew 24:15 and verse 30 this same 2000 years is simply not there. If Christ returns within 2000 years of that of 70 AD, that is where I'm getting this 2000 years figure from, per my interpretation of Luke 21.
I have never taken Matthew 24:15-26 to be involving 70 AD ever. Not one time. Initially, for decades even, since I did not take Matthew 24:15-26 to be involving 70 AD, neither did I take Luke 21:20 to be involving 70 AD. At the time, in my mind, that was the only way I could remain consistent. Eventually Luke 21:24 caused me to think differently about verse 20 since some of verse 24 literally fits with 70 AD and leading up to it.
So I then started reasoning things in an entirely different manner, where many see this as me being inconsistent the fact I'm treating Luke 21:20 literally but not doing the same with Matthew 24 despite both accounts have some of the same things in common, such as, those in Judea are to flee to the mountains, woe to them that are with child, etc.
There is simply no way, in my mind, that Matthew 24:15-26 could possibly be involving 70 AD. Yet, in my mind, Luke 21:20 can possibly be involving 70 AD and likely is.