Wuest Word
Studies, Kittels 10 volume Greek New Testament, Strongs,Vines Lexicon, et. al.
And yes adelphoi can refer to fellow believers or country men, but it never has been used in the NT to denote cousins, uncles aunts etc.
You should ask why Mounce goes against the super majority of Koine Greek scholars.
Once again, that was and is the normal understanding in situations espoused by the passage. You ne3ed to prove it doesn't mean what is the commonly understood meaning.
Yes they do at times. but you must prove that James, Joses, Simon, Judah and sisters meant cousins especially in light of the fact Joseph is mentioned Maybe calling Jesus the carpenters son meant the carpenters nephew? That is your line of reasining by how you want to use adelphoi here.
It is not an assertion but a simple understanding of the passage without a predisposed indoctrination.
Matthew 13:55-56 King James Version
55 Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas?
56 And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things?
The subject is Jesus. then Jospeh(carpenter) Mary (his mother) and his brothers and sisters. The pharisees were extremely familiar with the word syngenes and they were extremely familiar with the local families! Once again you argue from silence and do not provide biblical proof. especially inlight of the fact that Elizabeth was called syngenes in Scripture Luke:
36 And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren.
Sorry but your arguments are not supported by Scripture, but by unproved inferences and ephemeral musings.
A few points.
First,
Wuest Word Studies is not a Greek lexicon. It is a devotional and exegetical commentary series.
Kittel's TDNT (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament) is also not a standard lexical dictionary in the same sense as BDAG, Liddell-Scott, or other lexicons. It is a theological word-study reference that discusses usage and concepts in great detail.
Strong's is fundamentally a concordance system with brief glosses attached. Even Strong himself never intended it to function as the final authority on lexical semantics.
Vine's Expository Dictionary is likewise an English-language theological reference work, not a technical Koine Greek lexicon.
So when you say "four major Greek dictionaries," you're actually citing a mix of a concordance, an English expository dictionary, a theological word-study set, and a commentary series. Those are useful resources, but they are not four independent Greek lexicons all reaching the same lexical conclusion.
Second, my appeal to Mounce was not because Mounce is infallible. It was to show that the statement "
adelphos never carried a broader kinship sense" is simply too strong. Personally, I think Mounce and other lexicographers who include "kinsman" or "relative" are recognizing an important linguistic reality: the
Septuagint (LXX) frequently uses
adelphos when translating the Hebrew Old Testament in passages involving extended kinship, not merely biological brothers. In other words, the broader kinship sense was not invented by modern scholars; it was already present in the Greek of the Scriptures used by many Jews and early Christians. For that reason, I do not think the lexical question is as settled or as narrow as you portray it.
That does not prove that James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas were cousins. I have never claimed it does. It simply means that the word
adelphoi itself is not restricted exclusively to sons of the same mother, and therefore the meaning in Matthew 13:55 must be established from the context rather than asserted as a lexical certainty.
Third, you keep insisting that I must prove James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas were cousins. I have never claimed they were cousins. That is a different argument. My point remains that the lexical meaning of
adelphoi does not by itself prove they were sons of Mary.
Finally, if we're going to appeal to scholarly consensus, the standard question isn't what Strong's, Vine's, Wuest, and Kittel say. The question is what the major critical lexicons say, especially BDAG, LSJ, Louw-Nida, and other primary lexical authorities. Simply listing popular reference works does not settle the issue.
In other words, your argument assumes that establishing the normal meaning of
adelphoi automatically establishes the identity of the people in Matthew 13:55. Those are two different questions. The first is lexical; the second is historical and exegetical.
Fourth, you keep demanding that I prove James, Joses, Simon, and Judas were cousins. But that is not the claim under dispute.
My original argument was that the men called Jesus's
adelphoi are never identified in Scripture as sons of Mary, while James and Joseph are elsewhere associated with another Mary, namely Mary of Clopas (Matthew 27:56; Mark 15:40; John 19:25). Whether one ultimately concludes they were cousins, stepbrothers, nephews, or some other close relatives is a separate question.
The immediate issue is much simpler: where does Scripture explicitly call James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas the sons of Mary?
Matthew 13:55-56 does not do so. It identifies Jesus as the carpenter's son, identifies Mary as His mother, and then names His
adelphoi. The text never says, "Mary bore James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas."
Therefore, the conclusion that they were Mary's biological sons is an inference from the passage, not an explicit statement of the passage itself.
You repeatedly say that your interpretation is the "normal" or "commonly understood" reading. Even if I grant that, a common interpretation is not the same thing as proof.
The Arians claimed their reading of Proverbs 8 was the plain reading. Protestants and Catholics disagree over the "plain reading" of John 6. Christians disagree over the "plain reading" of baptismal texts, eschatological texts, and predestination texts.
The question is not what seems most obvious at first glance. The question is what conclusion best accounts for all of the biblical data.
In my opening post I did not rest my case on the lexical range of
adelphos alone. The lexical argument merely establishes possibility.
My actual case was cumulative:
- James and Joseph are associated with another Mary.
- James the Lord's brother appears to be identified with James of Alphaeus.
- The New Testament never explicitly calls these men sons of Mary.
- Early Christian witnesses such as Papias, Hegesippus, and others consistently identify the Lord's brothers with the family of Clopas.
You have focused almost exclusively on the word
adelphoi, but you have not interacted with the larger argument. Even if I granted that
adelphoi ordinarily means "brothers," the questions raised by the identity of James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas would still remain.