The Repentant Woman, Mary of Bethany, and Mary Magdalene: One Figure?

[Rockerduck]

I understand your position that the two women were different. But that still doesn't explain my question. In John 11:2, John identifies Mary as the woman who anointed the Lord and wiped His feet with her hair before narrating the anointing in John 12.

If John is referring only to John 12, why does he use an event that his readers have not yet been told about as Mary's identifying marker?

And why does he choose the very distinctive combination of anointing Jesus' feet and wiping them with her hair, which is otherwise found in Luke 7?

Whether the women are the same or different, John 11:2 still requires an explanation.

The Apostle John is recounting a story many years later. This is the Apostle John's writing style for detail as he writes. The Apostle John always puts a detail that shows he was present and saw these things. After all, only a witness can tell these things. To be fair, John does recount specifics and chances are, he either was not present in the Luke parable or he did not think it was important for his Gospel. The woman's name in Luke 7 is intentionally left out by Dr. Luke.