A unique view on the book of Revelation.

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gadar perets

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Just as I suspected. Its not in the text, so you make up some excuse that I am not able to receive it. BTW, there is no pre-tribulation rapture.
 
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CoreIssue

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The last word in the book of Revelation is "Amen." which indicates that it might be the prayer of someone.

"...Where there are prophecies, they shall fail..." (1 Corinthians 13:8).

"Eternal vigilance is the price of security."

"...world without end..." (Ephesians 3:21).

AMEN means:

Amen is a transliteration of the Hebrew word amen [em'a]. The verb form occurs more than one hundred times in the Old Testament and means to take care, to be faithful, reliable or established, or to believe someone or something.
 

justbyfaith

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Just as I suspected. Its not in the text, so you make up some excuse that I am not able to receive it. BTW, there is no pre-tribulation rapture.
Revelation 3:10 is the text that proves to me that there is one.

That there is a rapture period is evident from 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18.

"Wherefore comfort one another with these words." Not very comforting if the church is going to have to live through the events in the Book of Revelation.
 

gadar perets

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Revelation 3:10 is the text that proves to me that there is one.
You are assuming the "hour of trial/temptation" is the time period after a supposed rapture of the entire church and you are applying what is said ONLY to the assembly at Philadelphia to all the churches.

That there is a rapture period is evident from 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18.

"Wherefore comfort one another with these words." Not very comforting if the church is going to have to live through the events in the Book of Revelation.
The comfort is in knowing we will all be resurrected from the dead (including those in verse 17 who will eventually die after that resurrection and be resurrected themselves later on). The Greek word for "then" in verse 17 is "epeita" also meaning afterward or next. The Greek word "tote" means; then, at that time. "Tote" would have been more appropriate if the living were caught up at the same time as the dead or even shortly after. However, "epeita" was used instead. This word was also used in Galatians 1:18 meaning three years later; in Galatians 2:1 meaning fourteen years later; and in James 4:14 meaning an indefinite number of years later.

The proper understanding of this verse, 1 Thessalonians 4:17, is that Yeshua will come to resurrect the dead when the seventh trumpet is blown (Revelation 11:15). This resurrection of the saints is pictured in Revelation 12:5. Those that are "alive and remain" are pictured in Revelation 12:17. They are eventually killed by the beast and resurrected at some point prior to Armageddon which takes place years later. Then Yeshua will come with all the saints to set up the Kingdom of YHWH.
 

bbyrd009

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That there is a rapture period is evident from 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18.

"Wherefore comfort one another with these words." Not very comforting if the church is going to have to live through the events in the Book of Revelation.
fwiw the Church manifests those things in the Rev, and it is satan who needs to be worried about Armageddon, not us
 
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justbyfaith

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You are assuming the "hour of trial/temptation" is the time period after a supposed rapture of the entire church and you are applying what is said ONLY to the assembly at Philadelphia to all the churches.
No, actually I am applying it only to Philadelphia; I am saying that it is only the overcomers in Philadelphia who will be caught up pre-trib.
 

gadar perets

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Read Revelation 2 and 3 for the answer to that.
Ugh! To the assembly at Ephesus it say, "To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God."
Does that mean they will be saved, but will not be raptured?
 

justbyfaith

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Ugh! To the assembly at Ephesus it say, "To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God."
Does that mean they will be saved, but will not be raptured?
What do you think?
 

CoreIssue

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What do you think?

Prophetically the church of Philadelphia is all that belong to Christ and all will be raptured.

The seven churches our seven church ages. The sixth and the seventh coexist now.

The sixth will be rapture in the seventh spirit out into the tribulation.


The promise of the tree of life says they will be in the New Jerusalem.

 

Enoch111

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I don't believe any one will be raptured. It is appointed unto men to die once.
Why don't you simply read what the Bible says about the Rapture? Just as Enoch and Elijah escaped death, there will be hundreds of thousands (perhaps millions) who will not experience death. So while the general rule is that human beings die, there is a specific promise that the true Church (the Bride of Christ) will be raptured.
 

gadar perets

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We shall not all sleep... 1 Corinthians 15:50-55.
The context of this chapter is clear. Paul's intention was to refute the belief that there is no resurrection of the dead (vss. 12,32). He states that all die as in Adam (vs.22) and since all must die, all must be made alive or resurrected. All must follow Yeshua in the resurrection since he led the way as firstfruits. Paul then states in vss. 36-38 that unless a person is sown in death he cannot be raised to life (see John 12:24). Unless he is raised from the dead he will not be given a heavenly body from Yahweh. Verse 42 says the dead are raised in incorruption; it does not say the living are made incorruptible. This brings us to verse 51. "We shall not all sleep" does not mean "we shall not all die." It means, "we shall not all remain sleeping in the grave." A word study of "koimao," number 2837 in Strong's Concordance will reveal that it refers to people that are already dead and sleeping in the grave. If Paul had meant living saints he would have said, "We shall not all fall asleep" which refers to the act of dying. There is no mention of any living saints being transformed in this verse.

Paul makes his statement, "we shall not all sleep" as a summation of his refutation to the false teaching of no resurrection. The false teachers said "no one resurrects. Everyone sleeps." Paul opposes them and says, "we shall not all sleep" or "we shall not all remain dead."
 

gadar perets

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Why don't you simply read what the Bible says about the Rapture? Just as Enoch and Elijah escaped death, there will be hundreds of thousands (perhaps millions) who will not experience death. So while the general rule is that human beings die, there is a specific promise that the true Church (the Bride of Christ) will be raptured.
Enoch and Eliyah both died.

John 3:13 – “And no man has ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, the Son of Man.”

If Enoch and Eliyah did not die, did they remain on earth until Yeshua resurrected and then ascend to heaven with him?

We also have the Apostle Paul’s witness; Colossians 1:18 – “that in all things he might have the preeminence.” Yeshua had to be the firstborn from the dead; the first to be resurrected unto eternal life; the first to ascend into heaven and stand before YHWH.

To believe they did not die is to deny the plain word of many other scriptures as well. For example, Romans 5:12,14 says all men die because all have sinned. Are we to believe that Enoch and Eliyah did not sin or that the curse for sinning did not apply to them? Are we to believe that a man who was not yet cleansed of sin by the blood of Messiah could enter heaven and dwell in YHWH’s presence?
 

justbyfaith

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Enoch and Eliyah both died.

John 3:13 – “And no man has ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, the Son of Man.”

If Enoch and Eliyah did not die, did they remain on earth until Yeshua resurrected and then ascend to heaven with him?

We also have the Apostle Paul’s witness; Colossians 1:18 – “that in all things he might have the preeminence.” Yeshua had to be the firstborn from the dead; the first to be resurrected unto eternal life; the first to ascend into heaven and stand before YHWH.

To believe they did not die is to deny the plain word of many other scriptures as well. For example, Romans 5:12,14 says all men die because all have sinned. Are we to believe that Enoch and Eliyah did not sin or that the curse for sinning did not apply to them? Are we to believe that a man who was not yet cleansed of sin by the blood of Messiah could enter heaven and dwell in YHWH’s presence?
You are not taking all of scripture into account.

Elijah was caught up by fiery chariots into heaven, in 2 Kings 2:9-18. Enoch, in Genesis 5:24, "was not, for God took him." In Hebrews 11:5 this is clarified, that Enoch was translated that he should not see death; and was not found, because God had translated him; for before his translation he had this testimony, that he pleased the Lord.

Therefore your statements are merely arguments that are demolished by the weapons of our warfare; the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of the Lord.