Proof of the Trinity. No takers?

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APAK

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If you reject the clear statements of scripture, what do you trust in?

How dare you accuse me of not trusting in scripture. Shame on you. You are quite the deceitful and a prideful one indeed. Scripture reading and understanding is the heart of me and part of my salvation. Have you been studying scripture for over 40 years, on and off?

You say scripture are clear statements. That alone speak volumes about your sheer ignorance and ineptitude on the subject. I would not speak too much if I were you, because you have proven that you cannot interpret scripture at all. You cannot even tell me what Jude 1:5 not Jude 5 as you keep writing, means to and why? You are not honest with me sir and you must know this!

So about 3 percent of the poorly translated versions of scripture, the LEB, the Darby, and ESV and a few others, all followed suit and not the NIV as you quoted, saying 'Jesus' is applicable in Jude 1:5 and not 'Lord.'

These blatantly and clearly cause error, and in this case translate ‘ho kuros’ of the Greek of Jude 1:5 into the word ‘Jesus.’ Any mature Bible believing Catholic or any Protestant student of scripture would shy away from it and your false belief. It always means ‘the God, of all’ or ‘the Lord, of all,’ not Jesus, in its context.

So, you are telling me that Jesus actually freed the Israelites from bondage in Egypt and them destroyed the unbelieving ones later?

Are you kidding me!! (I cannot say it enough times….)

Are you now rewriting the OT and Torah??

You are a foot soldier for the Trinitarian cause indeed.

As one of many scholars write about 'Jesus' in Jude 1:5 of a few versions of scripture: "When Trinitarian academics are too incompetent to figure out why a manuscript variant cannot be authentic."

Remember, the name Jesus simple was given as a name for a baby boy created by God. It also means Joshua or Jeshua. Jesus the Christ was the anointed one, the Messiah. Why did not these Trinitarians used Jesus Christ at least. It would at least been more believable although still a blatant lie.

Bless you,


APAK
 

mjrhealth

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Scripture is our final reference point.
Actually Gods Spirit is,

1Co_2:10 But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God.

1Co_2:13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
 

justbyfaith

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Again, @Dave L;


Ephesians 4:5, One Lord, one faith, one baptism.

Matthew 11:25, At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes.

Luke 10:21, In that hour Jesus rejoiced in spirit, and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them to babes: even so, Father, for so it seemed good in thy sight.

Can you say that Jesus is the Lord in light of these verses?

1 Corinthians 12:3 says, Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.

Do you have the Holy Ghost of scripture?

See Isaiah 54:17.
 
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farouk

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Actually Gods Spirit is,

1Co_2:10 But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God.

1Co_2:13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
God's Spirit never goes against anything He has already inspired in the settled Scriptures.
 

justbyfaith

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Now you are a cherry-picker of scripture

I'm in good company; Jesus was too. Matthew 4:4, Matthew 4:7, Matthew 4:10; Luke 4:4, Luke 4:8, Luke 4:12.

Please read these scriptures in their immediate context.

So, I would like you to explain to me what exactly does Mich 5:2 mean to you

I don't know all the details of everything that it means; but I do know that it teaches the pre-existence of Jesus even into the eternal past.
 
D

Dave L

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How dare you accuse me of not trusting in scripture. Shame on you. You are quite the deceitful and a prideful one indeed. Scripture reading and understanding is the heart of me and part of my salvation. Have you been studying scripture for over 40 years, on and off?

You say scripture are clear statements. That alone speak volumes about your sheer ignorance and ineptitude on the subject. I would not speak too much if I were you, because you have proven that you cannot interpret scripture at all. You cannot even tell me what Jude 1:5 not Jude 5 as you keep writing, means to and why? You are not honest with me sir and you must know this!

So about 3 percent of the poorly translated versions of scripture, the LEB, the Darby, and ESV and a few others, all followed suit and not the NIV as you quoted, saying 'Jesus' is applicable in Jude 1:5 and not 'Lord.'

These blatantly and clearly cause error, and in this case translate ‘ho kuros’ of the Greek of Jude 1:5 into the word ‘Jesus.’ Any mature Bible believing Catholic or any Protestant student of scripture would shy away from it and your false belief. It always means ‘the God, of all’ or ‘the Lord, of all,’ not Jesus, in its context.

So, you are telling me that Jesus actually freed the Israelites from bondage in Egypt and them destroyed the unbelieving ones later?

Are you kidding me!! (I cannot say it enough times….)

Are you now rewriting the OT and Torah??

You are a foot soldier for the Trinitarian cause indeed.

As one of many scholars write about 'Jesus' in Jude 1:5 of a few versions of scripture: "When Trinitarian academics are too incompetent to figure out why a manuscript variant cannot be authentic."

Remember, the name Jesus simple was given as a name for a baby boy created by God. It also means Joshua or Jeshua. Jesus the Christ was the anointed one, the Messiah. Why did not these Trinitarians used Jesus Christ at least. It would at least been more believable although still a blatant lie.

Bless you,


APAK
If you do not understand that Jesus Christ = YAHWEH in the Old Testament, to the point you reject scripture saying he is, you have many wasted years of study to account for.
 
D

Dave L

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@Dave L.

Ephesians 4:5 says clearly that there is one Lord.

Matthew 11:25 and Luke 10:21 show clearly that that Lord is the Father.

Now in light of this, can you type out in the next post that Jesus is the Lord?

Do you have the Holy Ghost? (see 1 Corinthians 12:3).
One Lord eternally manifested as Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.
 
D

Dave L

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And you have accepted the conclusions of theologians you have never met. Why not accept rather the Word of God which God speaks to any willing heart now?
What teachers do you listen to? How well do you know them? You would never have come up with your beliefs apart from them.
 

justbyfaith

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Jesus Christ = YAHWEH of the OT. Father, Son, and Holy Spirit in three distinct persons.
Bingo. In Jesus Christ dwells all the fulness of the Godhead bodily...Colossians 2:9. You just agreed with my belief system, whether you know it or not.
 

justbyfaith

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But just to make sure...do you confess that Jesus is the Lord? as simple yes or no will suffice.
 

justbyfaith

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How many Lords are there?

The Father is the Lord. Jesus is the Lord. And there is one Lord.

If Jesus is not the Father, I count two Lords there; and thus a contradiction in the scriptures.
 
D

Dave L

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But just to make sure...do you confess that Jesus is the Lord? as simple yes or no will suffice.
You cannot say he is in any true sense. Because you cannot properly define Lord. It takes Holy Spirit revelation to say Jesus is Lord in truth and you cannot do this.
 

justbyfaith

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There is one Lord: Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 8:6, 1 Corinthians 12:3).

And the Father is the Lord of heaven and earth (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21).