Did you or did you not imply that "Grailhunter" is not a believer?
Even if I did do that (which is irrelevant), how does that translate into I am the only one who believes and is saved?
If you are teaching Entire Sanctification while we are in our mortal flesh, you ARE a false teacher.
That is a lie. And in order to make it, you have to deny that the King James Version is the word of God. Because it clearly teaches, in 1 Thessalonians 5:23-24 (kjv), that the Lord will indeed sanctify us wholly while we are still in this mortal flesh.
That is how you twist things. I NEVER said that God does not call us to holiness! But, He knows that we will never achieve sinless perfection while here on earth in our mortality.
And of course you are again applying the misnomer to entire sanctification. We do not achieve sinless perfection...we can come to the place of being sanctified wholly. This means that the element of sin is rendered dead within us, so that it no longer has any say over our behaviour (Romans 7:8, Galatians 5:24, Romans 6:6).
I have "weaseled" my way around
1 John 3:9??? You have neglected the first part of the verse: "No one who is born of God
practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God." The key to understanding the verse is to take ALL of 1 John into consideration. Yes, we are freed from habitual sin, as exists among those who are the "sons (and daughters) of disobedience". But to say that we can achieve sinless perfection while in our mortal flesh would deny what John is saying in 1 John: 1:8.
The doctrine of entire sanctification, as I have defined it immediately above, is not in contradiction to 1 John 1:8.
Also, you forget that I am kjv-only/superior (and that this is a major part of our discussion). If the kjv is wrong on this (and also if you are right), then 4 centuries of Christians went to the lake of fire. And the kjv does not render it "practice". The only sense in which the word is accurate is in that it is talking about whether we sin practically; and is not speaking of whether we do or do not have indwelling sin. But it is not faithful in the teaching that results from it, that individual sins no longer count; but you must live twenty years committing the same sin over and over again before you can realize that you are a sinner in need of a Saviour.
Again, you twist! What is gnostic is the insistence that we can achieve sinless perfection in our mortal flesh--that is to bring Jesus Christ down to our level. He will ALWAYS be the ONLY ONE who ever achieved sinless perfection in His flesh.
Again, I do not preach sinless perfection...I preach entire sanctification...or, mortification (see Romans 8:13 (kjv)).
What you have cited is not the only gnostic lie.
It is the primary factor, according to 1 John 4:1-3, and 2 John 1:7, of determining whether someone is caught up in any form of gnosticism.
We ARE free--none of us has to sin--but we do.
If we do sin, then we are not free...for whosoever commits sin is the servant of sin (John 8:34).
Our sins have been forgiven though the cleansing of the Blood of the Lamb.
If they are indeed cleansed, then they are no longer a part of us; they have been washed away. Understand what this means.
You took that quote out of its context. The man I was speaking of was anything BUT holy.
Of course. I was merely making a point. The very next thing that I quoted from you was the context; and I made my point in response to that quote. The first quote merely helped me to make that point.
I never said ANY such thing and I think you know that. That makes you a liar.
I love you, too!
And of course, the devil (as well as those who take on his nature) is the accuser of the brethren.
I don't know why you are attacking me like this. I have not attacked you; except, perhaps, in direct response to your initial attack. Therefore I am the sheep and you are the wolf. I am a lily among thorns.
You forget the lessons of the Book of Job. God called Job "blameless--a man of complete integrity" (Job 1:8). Yet, ultimately, God found sin in Job and scolded him for it.
Actually, have you read the book of Job enough times to know what it is about? The only sin that the Lord found in Job was that he knew that he was righteous; and when he justified himself rather than God for that they didn't know what was happening behind the scenes, Job was caught in a catch-22 that he could not get out of. Job mainained his integrity even though it made God look unrighteous. Thus Job sinned. But only because he knew that he was righteous and wouldn't back down when his "comforting friends' tried to tell him that the suffeirng he was going through was because of some sin in his life.
But actually, Job 1:8 says this:
Job 1:8, And the LORD said unto Satan, Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil?
Also, Job 1:1 says,
Job 1:1, There was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job; and that man was perfect and upright, and one that feared God, and eschewed evil.
So Job was perfect and upright.
When we apply these terms to man, do we define them differently than when we apply them to God?