Hi @DNB,
You have said that you are not a Jehovah's Witness and yet categorically deny the Deity of Christ.
I assume that if you are not a JW then you do not go by the New World Translation.
So, a few things:
In John 1:1 and John 1:14, how is it that you do not see that the Bible explicitly declares that Jesus is God?
And also, in Psalms 50:1 (kjv), we find that the LORD (Jehovah) is the mighty God.
Therefore, in Isaiah 9:6, if you go by the kjv rather than the NeWT, it tells us that Jesus (the son that was given) is Jehovah (the LORD).
If I were a JW, I would wonder at that. I would think on these things, and understand that the NeWT gives a message that is biased against the doctrine of Christ's Deity. Because Psalms 50:1 is not accurately translated in the NeWT.
I would understand that I am being cheated out of sound doctrine by a biased translation of the Bible.
You have said that you are not a Jehovah's Witness and yet categorically deny the Deity of Christ.
I assume that if you are not a JW then you do not go by the New World Translation.
So, a few things:
In John 1:1 and John 1:14, how is it that you do not see that the Bible explicitly declares that Jesus is God?
And also, in Psalms 50:1 (kjv), we find that the LORD (Jehovah) is the mighty God.
Therefore, in Isaiah 9:6, if you go by the kjv rather than the NeWT, it tells us that Jesus (the son that was given) is Jehovah (the LORD).
If I were a JW, I would wonder at that. I would think on these things, and understand that the NeWT gives a message that is biased against the doctrine of Christ's Deity. Because Psalms 50:1 is not accurately translated in the NeWT.
I would understand that I am being cheated out of sound doctrine by a biased translation of the Bible.