All that does is reveal the great errors of the Dispensationalist and Pre-Trib "secret rapture" schools. Those verse comparisons do not show two separate gospels of Jesus Christ, nor two separate bodies in Christ.
(Forgive me if I seem upset with the doctrines of men your verse comparisons point to. I well know you aren't the originator of the false twin-gospel and Pre-trib "secret rapture" ideas.)
fivesense said:
Peter called in Israel (Mt. 4:18)
Paul called outside Israel (Acts 9:3)
Both Peter and Paul were called by The same Lord Jesus Christ, in the same Gospel of Jesus Christ. The Gospel Message was to go to Israel first. That's the only difference with Peter, for God showed him, and us, in Acts 10 that believing Gentiles were to hear The Gospel too. Peter was actually the first Apostle to preach The Gospel specifically to Gentiles, as per Acts 10 about Cornelius. So those two verses above do not support any such idea as two different Gospels of Jesus Christ.
Proclaimed among Israelites (Js. 1:1; 1 Pet. 1:1)
Proclaimed among the nations (Eph. 3:8)
In Eph.3:6, just 2 verses prior, Paul makes it clear that his commission in the Gospel of Jesus Christ was to show that Gentiles should be
"fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of His promise in Christ by the gospel." That is the direct opposite of what you're preaching about a twin-gospel idea. For believing Gentiles to become "fellowheirs, and of the same body", an heir and body (body of Christ) had to first exist. The heirs and body that already existed before Paul took the Gospel to Gentiles was the body of Israelite believers, those like Paul and the other Apostles and disciples of Christ Jesus. That destroys any vain attempt by men to separate the body of Christ's believers of both Israelites and Gentiles into two separate factions. Christ reiterated this one body idea again in John 17 when praying for His Apostles. Apostle Paul also taught both as one body in Christ in all his Epistles.
fivesense said:
Salvation because of Israel (Acts 10:30-32)
Salvation in spite of Israel (Acts 13:6-12; Rom. 11:15)
The Acts 13:6-12 verses are about the Jew false prophet sorcerer Bar-jesus. Acts 10:30-32 is about Peter (an Israelite) preaching Christ to the Gentile Cornelius and those with him. You've equated that unbelieving Jew false prophet Bar-jesus with Israel, while totally omitting the believers of Israel. The doctrines of men you're on has bewitched you.
fivesense said:
Saints termed the bride of the Lambkin (Jn. 3:29; Rev. 21:9)
Saints termed the body of Christ (Eph. 5:30)
The saints are both... Christ's bride, and the body of Christ. When Paul said he espoused us to one Husband (Christ) in 2 Corinthians 11, he was using that very idea about Christ's body being the bride, to remain chaste virgins waiting for Him even! In John 3, John the Baptist was showing that he was not The Bridegroom (Christ Jesus), because some of his disciples and Jews had a question about purfying. John's duty was to come prior to Christ, and that's why he used the figure of being the "friend of the bridegroom", for when Christ did appear, John had joy in seeing Him. That had absolutely nothing to do with any supposed separation of Christ's body of believing Israel and believing Gentiles.
fivesense said:
Glory of the terrestrial (1 Cor. 15:40; Jn. 3:12)
Glory of the heavenly (1 Cor. 15:40; Jn. 3:12)
In 1 Cor.15:40, Paul is explaining there's a difference between the glory (doxa) of terrestrial bodies (animals, birds, etc.) and bodies celestial (sun, moon, stars, etc.). All he's showing is there's different things in God's creation that each have a purpose and their own glory. Both the terrestrial and celestial body examples he gives there are of God's material creation, for the sun, moon, and stars are made of material matter like the earth also. They're all in this same earthly dimension, and that's what you haven't understood about that.
Paul is not using that to compare Israel as animals on earth, and Gentiles as celestial heavenly bodies. Paul is not even giving a hint of any such idea as terrestrial bodies symbolically representing Israel, while celestrial bodies symbolically represent Gentiles in Christ. Instead, thinking of that sort is like playing Mysticism with God's Word.
In 1 Cor.15, Paul is teaching about the resurrection. In John 5, Christ said at the sound of His voice, ALL in the graves shall come forth, those who've done good to the "resurrection of life", and others who've done evil to the "resurrection of damnation". Did you get that? BOTH the just AND THE UNJUST are resurrected to spiritual bodies! The "spiritual body" Paul taught in 1 Cor.15 IS... the resurrection body. It is a body type of the heavenly dimension, not this earthly dimension. But it will manifest on this earth in the earthly dimension, just as Christ manifested to His disciples in His Resurrection Body. I suggest you learn that difference between the two types of dimensions that exist in God's Word; that's very important, for in the future at Christ's return, both dimensions are going to be joined. God is coming back to this earth to dwell upon it. He showed us that in Genesis 2 with His River in Eden existing upon the earth, for that River flowed out of God's Garden to feed four other rivers upon the earth (see Ezekiel 47 also).
But what you're trying to show with your verse comparison is that Israel will have a fleshy glory with an earthy kingdom on earth, while the Gentiles will have heavenly type spiritual bodies with a heavenly kingdom off the earth. That's not what God's Word teaches at all. Those you listen to have not understood what Heaven is. The attempt to assign celestial bodies like the sun, moon, and stars to a Heavenly existence is off the mark, for even those orbs are part of God's material creation today, not His Heavenly creation where His Abode is and where His angels dwell. God's Abode is not on some far distant star in another galaxy, for even distant galaxies are still within the same material dimension as this earth.
fivesense said:
Racial distinctions important (Mt. 19:28; Rev. 21:12)
Racial distinctions irrelevant (1 Cor. 12:13; Gal. 3:28)
Racial distinctions are important ONLY for this present world. God has a Salvation Plan for all nations, but He chose a specific nation to be the lead in carrying that forth. So what if many of the chosen seed rebelled. It didn't stop His Gospel Plan from going forth, as it even continued through the seed He promised it would.
In Romans 9, Paul showed how Christ's Gospel Salvation is not about literal seed, but about spiritual seed, i.e., for all those who have believed. You simply fail to note the difference between God's promises going forth through a certain seed on the earth for the greater purpose to all peoples, regardless of seed. When those like myself preach of how God has kept His promises to the seed of Israel even at this present time, that purpose is for the benefit of ALL, for it shows God's Plan of Salvation for all peoples going forth as He promised, shows what He said He'd do is True. God is no respector of persons, as His Word declares. Even when Paul showed that all who have believed as faithful Abraham have become the children of Abraham, that was showing His Salvation promise through Christ beginning with Abraham, through a certain seed, but for all that would become joint-heirs with him, and that promise was prior to Abraham's circumcision. Gentiles joint-heirs with Israel? Yes. One Body.
fivesense said:
Believers known from the disruption (foundation,KJV) of the world (Rev. 17:8)
Believers known before the disruption of the world (Eph. 1:4)
Those whose names were written from the foundation (katabole) are the same ones whose names were written before the katabole ("foundation" in Eph.1:4). It's about God's election, both verse examples are. In the Rev.17:8 example, only those who's names are written are revealed they will not 'wonder' as the rest of the world, they are to understand. In the Eph.1:4 example, it's the reason for predestination and being blessed with spiritual blessings in heavenly places. What those who you listen to do not understand, is that there was a previous earth age prior to today's present earthly foundation at Genesis 1:2 forward. And in that previous earth age was when the 'katabole' was, i.e., the time when Satan first rebelled against God. That's when God predestinated a chosen elect ordained to serve Christ and those who would believe by their word (John 17), and blessing them with heavenly blessings. Greek kataballo, which is where 'katabole' is derived, is about the idea of subjection, casting down. I think Bullinger has an Appendix on this, showing how it points back to Satan's rebellion of old.
fivesense said:
Believers called first, then chosen (Mt. 22:14)
Believers chosen first, then called (Rom. 8:30)
Many called, few chosen in Matt.22:14. In Matt.20 with the parable of labourers in the vineyard, Christ used that same statement. The labourer who worked all day complained how those who worked only one hour received the same pay. The complainer represents those called who think their calling should elevate them above the other labourers. We can see many believing Gentiles doing that very thing today, elevating theirselves, and not just Jews who refuse Christ.
You infer that Israel are the called, but Gentiles are the chosen. What about those of Israel that did believe, even Christ's Apostles and disciples that followed Him, and were given ministries to preach The Gospel to the nations? What of Abraham, of Moses, of Noah, of David, Jonah, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, etc.? What about the Israelite remnant according to the election of grace Paul declared in Romans 11:1-5? If you really understood how many of the seed of Israel have believed on Christ Jesus through history, and even today, it would blow your mind. God's Word even shows how The Gospel of Jesus Christ flowed through the seed of Israel to the Gentiles. Were those Israelites who first preached to the Gentiles not chosen? Yes, they were. Only the called of both Israel and of Gentiles that REFUSE Christ, or become haughty and vain and slothful, are cut off and assigned to the "outer darkness". Don't you remember our Lord's warning about the five foolish virgins?
fivesense said:
Will keep law (Mic. 4:2)
Not under law (Rom. 6:14)
Hardly the matter. Paul taught the law was made for the lawless, and that means anyone who goes out and does murder, adultery, thefts, etc. That's upon Gentiles too brother! Paul taught there's a condition to not be under the law. We must walk by The Spirit, and then we won't be doing anything against the law. He showed if we instead walk by the flesh, then we most definitely place ourselves back into bondage of the law. Why? Following the ways of the flesh means becoming lawless, i.e., an outlaw. It adversely affects us, both to our soul, our family, and our community.
Those you listen to obviously haven't explained to you what all God's laws are about. God's laws are not just about the Old Covenant worship that Christ nailed to His cross. God's laws include many of the civil laws governments of present nations use, especially among the western Christian nations. Murder is still punishable in the United States by the death penalty. That's from God's laws. Paul declared how we should live in Christ so as to not be found doing those kind of things, and when we heed Christ by The Holy Spirit, those laws have no affect upon us, for we won't be breaking those laws. It's that simple.
Now those of Israel who think to be justified in Christ by following the law have failed, and that's certainly not about believing Israel. Believing Israel well knows the law can not save anyone, but only God's grace through His Son Jesus Christ can. You shouldn't confuse non-believing Israel with believing Israel, which those you listen to obviously do.
It's the false prophets that aren't warning the believer about the condition Paul taught to not be under the law. Many believers are doing all kinds of sins as if they have a license to sin. Only a false prophet would love that result of teaching those in Christ don't have to respect Paul's condition.
fivesense said:
Water baptism required (Ac. 2:38)
Water baptism not required (1 Cor. 1:17; 12:13)
Who told you water baptism is no longer important to Christ? Christ was baptized of water as an example, and commanded it for us. And we should obey Him. The Bible examples like the malefactor on the cross that believed, is a totally different situation. He clearly didn't have opportunity to be baptized of water. Christ can save in those situations too! But for those who have plenty of opportunity to be baptized, are to do it, and not put it off.
What Paul was saying in 1 Cor.1:17 has nothing to do with whether we should be baptized or not. He only said he wasn't called in that ministry. But others with him were. Paul was angry because they had divisions among them, one following Apollos, one following Cephas, one following Christ, etc. None of that has any bearing on Christ's relationship between Israelites and Gentiles.
fivesense said:
Must be begotten anew ("born again" - Jn. 3:3)
Are a new creation (2 Cor. 5:17)
It's the same idea in both verse examples. In John 3 it's about being born 'from above' by The Spirit. In 2 Cor.5 it's about the result of being born again. Again, that has nothing to do with any supposed separation of The One Gospel to both Israelites and Gentiles as one body.
fivesense said:
Pardoned of guilt (that is, forgiven - Lk. 11:4)
Not even guilty (that is, justified - Rom. 5: 1)
Now that comparison is a grand error on your part, and you should know better. What was that Apostle Paul said in Romans 3 that all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God? NONE are ever 'justified' in sin pardner. ALL must be forgiven of their sins through Christ's Blood shed on the cross. Paul said that we have ALL been put under bondage to sin so that Salvation would be to those who by Faith believe on Jesus Christ. Don't repent of your sins, and you mostly definitely are still guilty.
Something you probably don't remember that Paul taught in Romans 3:25, is that through Christ's Blood remission is for our sins THAT ARE PAST. Bet you didn't know that's a condition, "sins that are past." This is why The Lord's Prayer in Luke 11 is still in effect for ALL Christians, and is why MOST Christians today still say it.
If your first repentance and baptism in Christ was about only the remission of "sins that are past", what's covering all your sins that you do afterwards? What you're preaching is the false 'once saved, always saved' doctrine of men; the idea that no matter what sins you commit after coming to Christ, you won't be held accountable. You truly have forgotten about the five foolish virgins warning our Lord Jesus gave in Matt.25, haven't you? No wonder those you listen to tell you only Paul's Epistles apply to you, and not any other part of The Bible. But what they're not telling you, is that Paul warned about unrepentance and sin AFTER having come to Christ too, just as our Lord Jesus did in the four Gospel Books!!! (Try Romans 1 and Galatians 5).
Well, I've had enough. Maybe someone else can finish fivesense's false comparison of verses used to try and show believing Israel is separate from believing Gentiles.
