A Question About The Death and Resurrection of Christ

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April_Rose

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17 Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.’ ”



That's pretty interesting but why would Jesus die, resurrect, and ascend into Heaven only to come back down to earth again in such a short period of time? What would be the point? I think what Jesus is saying here is that He's about to ascend, He just doesn't say when but I also don't believe it to be immediately.




Well, any question is a good question. But if Jesus stayed dead then who would I have as a Father in heaven under God the Father? I'm happy for Jesus that he gets to live after suffering for the price of sin which is death. I love Jesus and want to be with him.






Agreed but that wasn't the question. Btw @quietthinker, is the second death Hell?
 

April_Rose

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I thought your question was why didn't Jesus stay dead? And if that's the question than there are many reasons why he didn't but to bring me happiness because of his presence is one of them.





The question was why didn't He stay dead because I thought He was paying for our original punishment but that question has been answered now. :)
 
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April_Rose

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So, the god-man can't remain dead because, obviously, he's god. But, he can die as the god-man because, obviously, he isn't god.
Since when did they allow 10 year old's on the forum?





Just ignore him. Literally put him on ignore. That's what I did.
 

Ronald Nolette

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I think that I'm understanding this right but a lot of people wonder why if Jesus rose again after His death then what was the point of Him dying on the cross for our sins in the first place if He didn't stay dead,.. I think it was the act of Him dying that we were able to gain our salvation and it didn't have anything to do with His death itself. Am I understanding it right? Or is there something else I'm missing?


His death was to pay for our sin. His resurrection was to justify us before the Father and insure we would live again!
 

CharismaticLady

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That's pretty interesting but why would Jesus die, resurrect, and ascend into Heaven only to come back down to earth again in such a short period of time? What would be the point? I think what Jesus is saying here is that He's about to ascend, He just doesn't say when but I also don't believe it to be immediately.

Agreed but that wasn't the question. Btw @quietthinker, is the second death Hell?

Maybe the need for the Father to validate His sacrifice.
 
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justbyfaith

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In the context I was writing is solely speaking to a "PERFECT SACRIFICE". Are you so perfect that you too could have taken Jesus place on that cross?
The word "perfect" can also mean "complete".
If that is the case, then the word "complete" can also mean "perfect".

Consider.

Col 2:10, And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

In answer to your question, no, I am not capable of dying for the sins of men because I am not the infinite Son of God.

Jesus was able to die for us, not only because He was perfect; but because of His infinite nature in His Deity.
 
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DNB

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you have MUCH to learn, but you can't, as you think that you know it all! :eek:
You've been indoctrinated, probably at a very young age, therefore, you fail to see the utter absurdities in your logic that you continue to espouse, and the incompetence in your exegesis that you constantly apply.
 

Phoneman777

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I think that I'm understanding this right but a lot of people wonder why if Jesus rose again after His death then what was the point of Him dying on the cross for our sins in the first place if He didn't stay dead,.. I think it was the act of Him dying that we were able to gain our salvation and it didn't have anything to do with His death itself. Am I understanding it right? Or is there something else I'm missing?
Simple: The guilt of humanity was laid upon Him so that "He Who knew no sin became sin for us", that He might suffer the penalty that was ours for us - total separation from His Father followed by an eternal extinction of being (death). Note: His humanity passed out of existence only, of course, His divinity lived on).

So, why was He resurrected from this eternal death?

Because the guilt laid upon Him for which He suffered and died was ours, not His, this allowed the Father to raise Him from eternal death seeing that He Himself didn't deserve it. By virtue of Jesus as our Spotless Lamb Who died and rose as our High Priest Intercessor, God can be both "just and the Justifier of them which believe" because if we accept His death for us, we can be saved, while those who refuse will have to die the eternal death they deserve.
 

Charlie24

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I beg to differ (see Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8).

Rom. 6:11

"Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord."

Sin in these verses that Paul is using carries the definite article "the" which means "the sin" in reference to the "sin nature."

"reckon yourselves to be dead to the sin nature." Why are we to reckon ourselves dead to the sin nature?

The sin nature is not taken from anyone, it remains as long as you live. Faith in Christ, walking in the Spirit will keep the sin nature at bay, render it that it will not "have dominion over you" Rom. 6:14.

As soon as you let sin entice you and you wonder from Christ, the sin nature comes alive again. It is evident in the back slidden who have taken their eyes off Christ.

God left the sin nature in man as a check for this purpose, that we keep our faith in Christ always aware that we can slip.
 

justbyfaith

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Rom 6:6, Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin.

Gal 5:24, And they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts.

Rom 7:8, But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.
 

justbyfaith

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The sin nature is not taken from anyone, it remains as long as you live.

Col 2:11, In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

Col 2:11 (NLT), When you came to Christ, you were “circumcised,” but not by a physical procedure. Christ performed a spiritual circumcision—the cutting away of your sinful nature.
 

Charlie24

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Col 2:11, In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

Col 2:11 (NLT), When you came to Christ, you were “circumcised,” but not by a physical procedure. Christ performed a spiritual circumcision—the cutting away of your sinful nature.

NO, jbf! You are Wrong!

The sin nature is not destroyed, it is rendered ineffective. You are misunderstanding what Paul is saying.

After saying this, he says in 6:12, "let not sin (sin nature) therefore reign in your mortal body, that you should obey the lusts thereof."

Do you see, the sin nature is still there just waiting for you to fail.

"Destroy" as you interpret is not doing away with, it is rendering ineffective.
 

justbyfaith

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NO, jbf! You are Wrong!

The sin nature is not destroyed, it is rendered ineffective. You are misunderstanding what Paul is saying.

After saying this, he says in 6:12, "let not sin (sin nature) therefore reign in your mortal body, that you should obey the lusts thereof."

Do you see, the sin nature is still there just waiting for you to fail.

"Destroy" as you interpret is not doing away with, it is rendering ineffective.
The word that is written in the kjv is "destroyed" (Romans 6:6 (kjv))...

You may disagree because you probably hold a different translation of the holy scriptures to be inspired over and above the kjv.

I hold the kjv to be inspired over and above your translation.

So, I suppose that this places us at an impasse.
 

Charlie24

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The word that is written in the kjv is "destroyed" (Romans 6:6 (kjv))...

You may disagree because you probably hold a different translation of the holy scriptures to be inspired over and above the kjv.

I hold the kjv to be inspired over and above your translation.

So, I suppose that this places us at an impasse.

I use nothing but the KJV!

Romans 6:12 would not be there if the sin nature was destroyed in vs.6.

I'm finished with this, if you want to argue it further, argue with someone who doesn't know any better!
 

justbyfaith

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I use nothing but the KJV!

Romans 6:12 would not be there if the sin nature was destroyed in vs.6.

I'm finished with this, if you want to argue it further, argue with someone who doesn't know any better!
Romans 6:12 is for those who have not yet received the second benefit (2 Corinthians 1:15).