John 5:43 (KJV)
43 I am come in my Father’s name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive.
This is important.
Yes, it is important.....if Jesus was equally God, why could he not come in his own name?
Why was acceptance of the Father’s name held as of higher importance that Christ’s, if they were equally “God”?
To be our kinsman redeemer, God incarnate had to live as a man would. Or he would not be the kinsman of man. And there is no doubt Jesus was and is human (albeit God the Word incarnate).
A “kinsman” would have to be 100% mortal human.....Can the Almighty Sovereign Lord of the Universe become like the fleas on a dog in order to have kinship with the other fleas, or even the dog?
David said we are as “grasshoppers” down here on this earth.....do we imagine for one moment that there would ever be a time when God has not anticipated what he needed to do in advance of any situation that might arise as the consequence of his free willed children’s actions?
Yahweh God has an entire family of angels in heaven who serve him constantly in various capacities and rank....a King who has many servants needs to do nothing himself, but command those who are in his service to act in his behalf.
Many would be surprised to hear that Jesus is called both a “holy servant” of his God as well as an ”apostle”.....( Acts 4:27, 30; Heb 3:1)
Can God be his own servant?
Can God be his own apostle?
What about his own High Priest? Since these are all avenues of service TO God, doesn’t it seem strange that an omniscient God would put himself in a position where he was forced to serve himself? It’s nonsense!
Only another mortal could be used to rectify the situation that Adam created for his children. Mortal humans sinned, but the entire responsibility for the fall was place squarely on the shoulders of the man. (Rom 5:12) So the redeemer had to be the exact equivalent of that man in order to pay the price of redemption. Jesus is called “the last Adam” for that reason. (1 Cor 15:45)
The immortal God was ‘overqualified’ for the task.....so he sent his most trusted “servant” to fulfill the requirement and redeem the now condemned human race. The servant did so willingly, out of love.....love for his God, and also for mankind whom he had a hand in bringing to life.
This is what Jesus was talking about in his apparent inabilities (but are self-imposed limitations or restrictions):
John 5:19–24 (KJV)
19 Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
20 For the Father loveth the Son, and sheweth him all things that himself doeth: and he will shew him greater works than these, that ye may marvel.
21 For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth them; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will.
22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:
23 That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him.
24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
Do you speak archaic English at home? When people of other nations who do not speak English, have translations of the Bible in their own tongue, do you believe it is written in a dead language? Would people have to learn another language in order to read it with understanding?
Losing the old KJV would be a good start for anyone who finds it confusing and a stumbling block to understanding......what is a translation for, after all? Why were the disciples able to speak in the languages of the Jews who came to Jerusalem for the Festival of Pentecost, from foreign lands? (Acts 2:5-11)
Our mother tongue is the one that speaks to the heart.....it’s the one that makes the most sense....but only if it is comprehensible. The KJV is a dinosaur.
The passage of scripture you quoted and the parts you highlighted do not say what you imagine them to say....all are pointing to the superiority of the Father and the son as his representative. The son is his Father’s willing servant, “sent” by him to recover what Adam threw away for his children.
If we want everlasting life, we have to “know the only true God” AND “the one he sent, Jesus Christ”. (John 17:3) There is no mention of the holy spirit there.....
Those who accept Christendom’s version of God, do not know him at all.
John 5:37 (KJV)
37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.
See the contrast?
LOL...see what is plainly written.....The Father “sent” Jesus and foretold his appearance long in advance of his human birth.
John 1:18 confirms what Jesus said.....
“No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him.”
If “no man has seen God at any time”, then Jesus cannot be God because literally thousands of people saw him and heard him.
Jesus came in his Father's name (authority, representation) in humility as one of us.
Why does one part of God need authority from his equal?
Matt 28:18 tells us that “ALL AUTHORITY” was “given” to the son “in heaven and on earth”....what a strange thing to say if he is God already in a different form. (This was after his resurrection.)
Jesus accepted the testimony of the Father and the scriptures he fulfilled as evidence for man to conclude he is in fact God incarnate lone Creator of all things created in the beginning (John 1:3, Colossians 1:16, Isaiah 44:24) in company at the time with the Father (1 John 1:1-2) and the Holy Spirit (Genesis 1:1-2). God with God (John 1:1-2). Yet only one God (Deuteronomy 6:4).
Do you see the way you manipulated scripture there to assume something it does not say.....?
Where will I find “God incarnate lone Creator” mentioned anywhere in the Bible?
How does an infinite, eternal being have a “beginning”?
The role of the Father, son and holy spirit do not make them “one godhead”..... it makes them separate parts of God’s purpose in creating man in the first place. The son is “the beginning of God’s creation” (Rev 3:14) as he himself testifies.....he was used by the Father as his agency in creation...the one “through” whom creation was made. ( Col 1:15-17)
The holy spirit is God’s infinite power used to create the raw materials of creation but leaving the creation itself to his son’s discretion, working in company with his Father as the “us” and “our” in Genesis 1:26. (Prov 8:30-32) God’s “Master Workman”.
“God with God”.......that is never mentioned.....not even hinted at. You have been sold a very ancient lie.....and one that is a clear breach of the first and most of important Commandment......to put another “god” in the Father’s place. (Exodus 20:3) Christendom has put two other gods in the Father’s place.....it is blasphemy IMO.
