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quietthinker

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Adultery vs Fornication​

Fornication is when you were having too much fun before you were married
Adultery is when you were having not enough fun when you were married
 

Mark51

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Let me show the Reader the correct understanding of Adultery, as its 100% misunderstood on forums and in pulpits and in seminaries.

The verse says.......>"So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress:"""


Now did you read it carefully this time?

It says......""If while her HUSBAND liveth."""........"""she be married to another man""........= Adulteress".

Now, that is not fornication., as its always incorrectly taught....... = Its literally a woman with ....2 HUSBANDS.

So what is that?

A.
) Adultery.

Now the reason that Jesus lists "fornication".........as a reason for divorce....

So, to understand this, you have to understand that Jesus is God, and God is explaining marriage... like this.

1.) "a man shall leave his parents and CLEAVE to his WIFE".

A.) Cleave = "2 shall be (become) ONE Flesh"....

See that? that is "sexual intimacy" that is : Intercourse...........or "cleaving to your wife" if you are a male, or "flesh joining flesh" as "ONE".

That is how God defines "marriage". (along with : "what God has joined").... and that is why Paul tells us to "flee fornication" as its "flesh joining flesh" : as "ONE">.

So, have you fornicated a lot in your life, reader?
Well guess what........
Do the math.

Now, if you are born again, then all of that is under the blood of Jesus, forgiven, forgotten, as if you never had that past life.
If you are a real CHRISTian, born again.......(not just water baptized and religious) then you are a "NEW Creation", and "old things have//are passed away"......like your past sin life......as God does not remember it.......so, you should let it go also.
So, it..... your past, your past sinful deeds.... have no bearing on you now., as you are "made righteous" forever. "In Christ" as "one with God".
I am somewhat confused. Regardless, fornication is any sexual activity outside the marriage (male and female) arrangement. I feel that the Bible make that clear.
 

Behold

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I am somewhat confused. Regardless, fornication is any sexual activity outside the marriage (male and female) arrangement. I feel that the Bible make that clear.

Maybe this wil help.

When a man leaves his parents and "cleaves" to his wife..... the NT teaches this as "flesh joining flesh".

This is the consumation of Marriage......Its also the definiation of biblical marriage.

And.........Its also the definition of fornication, depending on the circumstance.

So, when a male joins a female by sexual intercourse, this is to become "ONE" flesh.....and that again is biblical marriage., and if the couple is not under a marriage contract, then this is fornication.

Paul tells us to """"FLEE Fornication""""", because that is "flesh joining flesh" and that is more then just fornication.

This is why Jesus taught that FORNICATION is a justifcation for divorce......as that is literally someone who is married... joining themselves to another, as "one flesh".... which is more then just the sex act.
 

Grailhunter

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I am somewhat confused. Regardless, fornication is any sexual activity outside the marriage (male and female) arrangement. I feel that the Bible make that clear.

1. Fornication is not a biblical word. Best to forget it. And it definitely does not appear in the actual scripture or words out of Christ’s mouth.
2. If you can find in the Bible two people having sex and staying together is a sin….you will set a lot of biblical scholars on their ears.
3. If you can find a requirement for wedding ceremony in the scriptures again you will set a lot of biblical scholars on their ears.
4.Adultery is a serious property crime….it is punishable by death….kind of like stealing a horse in the wild west.
If a couple had sex and remained together it was a marriage.
If they were having casual sex with people that was a sin. ..

Grailhunter….The Johnny Appleseed of Truth
Be good and do good
 
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Behold

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1. Fornication is not a biblical word.

Guess again.

1 Corinthians 6:18​

King James Version​

18"""" Flee fornication................. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body."""""​


2. If you can find in the Bible two people having sex and staying together is a sin….you will set a lot of biblical scholars on their ears.

Guess again.

Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body.
"Flee fornication"....

So, @Grailhunter if you are living with your lover , and you have not become legally married, then you are still living in fornication.

The only way to get out of fornication, still being committed.......such as living in fornication with someone, is to get a marriage license, take the vow of marriage and seal it with a ring, publically.


3. If you can find a requirement for wedding ceremony in the scriptures again you will set a lot of biblical scholars on their ears.

Guess again.

The term "WIFE"........is the explanation for a completed wedding ceremony.

I'll give you an example @Grailhunter .

1 Corinthians 9:5

"believing WIFE".....and that means that Peter had a marriage.

See a wedding ceremony produces a marriage contract, between two people........which is why they say VOWS.
Certainly, you are not too stupid ?????? to understand a "marriage VOW"?
That's a contract, and its sealed by a 'RiNG" as a public confession.

Then you consumate the marriage vow and contrace by Sexual Intercourse, and that is when "2 become one flesh" = NT Marriage.

In Israel where i have my Home........religious Jews.........have a room waiting for the "newlyweds" and they go into it, immediatley after the marrige ceremony, and complete the Marriage, by consumation.

4.Adultery is a serious property crime….it is punishable by death….kind of like stealing a horse in the wild west.

Guess again.

Let me explain., and only use the KJV for this, and if you are using a NIV< then get rid of it.

If while her #1 husband yet liveth,.............. she be #2 married to another man, she shall be called an Adulteress"..

Notice carefully bible noob @Grailhunter .......she has 2 Husbands......= "Adulteress".

If a couple had sex and remained together it was a marriage.
Guess again..


"Flesh joining flesh" is "ONE Flesh" and that is the Biblical definition of fornication, and marriage.

This is why Paul tells us to FLEE Fornication, as its more then just a work of the flesh or "sin", its a contract before GOD....whereby 2 people , male and female have become "one Flesh".

This is the male "cleaving" to His mate.........and that is a consumation, every single time you fornicate with a new sex partner. (Male/Female).
 
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Grailhunter

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Guess again.

1 Corinthians 6:18​

King James Version​

18"""" Flee fornication................. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body."""""​

1. Everything I said was exactly correct. I did not say that the word fornication does not appear in Bibles.

2. The King James Version is the most error ridden Bible in print.

Find an example of what you believe in the scriptures. Not counting the error ridden King James Version….which technically could form beliefs contrary to scripture.

The word fornication is a 4th century theological word that express beliefs contrary to scripture or the reality of the biblical era…old or new testament. So if you find it in any Bible it is a mistranslation.


Guess again.

Let me explain., and only use the KJV for this, and if you are using a NIV< then get rid of it.

If while her #1 husband yet liveth,.............. she be #2 married to another man, she shall be called an Adulteress"..

Notice carefully bible noob @Grailhunter .......she has 2 Husbands......= "Adulteress".

She was married to the first man.....property crime. He can marry other women without it being a sin. Women were the property of men.

Guess again..


"Flesh joining flesh" is "ONE Flesh" and that is the Biblical definition of fornication, and marriage.

This is why Paul tells us to FLEE Fornication, as its more then just a work of the flesh or "sin", its a contract before GOD....whereby 2 people , male and female have become "one Flesh".

This is the male "cleaving" to His mate.........and that is a consumation, every single time you fornicate with a new sex partner. (Male/Female).

Again you should study the scriptures and stop spreading false beliefs.

For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh. Genesis 2:24 No sin here.

Absolutely no requirement for a marriage ceremony in the scriptures or for most of history….that includes the Catholic Church….the Protestant reform changed that….in the 16th century Protestants made a church wedding ceremony a requirement to be married….shortly after that the Catholic Church followed their lead.
 
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Mark51

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1. Fornication is not biblical word. Best to forget it. And it definitely does not appear in the actual scripture or words out of Christ’s mouth.
2. If you can find in the Bible two people having sex and staying together is a sin….you will set a lot of biblical scholars on their ears.
3. If you can find a requirement for wedding ceremony in the scriptures again you will set a lot of biblical scholars on their ears.
4.Adultery is a serious property crime….it is punishable by death….kind of like stealing a horse in the wild west.
If a couple had sex and remained together it was a marriage.
If they were having casual sex with people that was a sin. ..
There are few, if any, English words in our Bibles that where in the original scriptual writings? The word "fornication" evolved from Greek-like many other words used in English. This word, that is used in the English language, describes any and all sexual activity outside the marriage, The word we use for scriptual sexual misconduct is not important, but the meaning in relation to conduct as not acceptable to our Creator.

You seem to be "spliting hairs," For one example only, the name of Jesus is not the same name, spelling, or pronuciation in the origianl writings.
 

Grailhunter

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There are few, if any, English words in our Bibles that where in the original scriptual writings? The word "fornication" evolved from Greek-like many other words used in English. This word, that is used in the English language, describes any and all sexual activity outside the marriage, The word we use for scriptual sexual misconduct is not important, but the meaning in relation to conduct as not acceptable to our Creator.

You seem to be "spliting hairs," For one example only, the name of Jesus is not the same name, spelling, or pronuciation in the origianl writings.

You are right about Jesus, no one even knows where it came from and no J’s in the scriptures.

The problem with the word fornication is that it skews most of history and Christianly regarding marriage and it causes sin. If you condemn a couple that have not had a wedding and turn them away from Christianity and they go to Hell because of that. You might find yourself standing in front of Christ having to account for their souls.

Let me clarify myself….I love weddings and have never missed one I have been invited to. But I am a educated Theologian and I know neither religion nor history is about what we like or dislike.
It is better to know the truth.

As it is now if you are Catholic or Protestant you should have a wedding…..but couples that have not had a wedding have not sinned and should be welcomed in the church with open arms. Letting them worship and fellowship with Christians with the hope of them having a wedding. But still no sin occurred here.

Grailhunter….the Johnny Appleseed of Truth
Be good and do good.
 
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Behold

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1. Everything I said was exactly correct. I did not say that the word fornication does not appear in Bibles.

You are lying again.

Here is your quote.

@Grailhunter wrote..

1. """""Fornication is not a biblical word. """" so i showed you the word as found in a BIBLE.


2. The King James Version is the most error ridden Bible in print.

A cult teaches the lie that you are spreading.

Its a cult that is dedicated to hating the KJV.
Its filled with idiots and worse.

So....Actually the NIV is going to be the worst "newer" version.....as its junk.

Whereas, the KJV< is the bible that has called more Preachers of Note, into the ministry, for the last 400+ years then all other bibles combined.
If you do a study of all the great Preachers throughout History.....you'll find that they were sitting under the preaching of a KJV.... and studying a KJV.

And its the same with all Legit historical revivals..of the last 400+ yrs.
Its always a KJV that is the bible being "preached"......being used in the Pulip, when a real revival breaks out.

The word fornication is a 4th century theological word that express beliefs contrary to scripture or the reality of the biblical era…

I dont use commentaries or dictionaries to teach the word of God.
I use Bibles... a few.


She was married to the first man.....property crime.

The verse says the woman has 2 husbands.

She was never divorced from the 1st one, and the 1st one never died.

Just read the verse, and keep your future guesses and opinions quiet @Grailhunter


Again you should study the scriptures and stop spreading false beliefs.

All bible noobs and similar tell me this when they can't deal with the truth.

What you should do, is go to your "prayer" Thread, and just stay there, as even you can't get that wrong.


For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh. Genesis 2:24 No sin here.


Correct.
Its a marriage.

Let me explain....
In Gen, there was no Moses Law.......and you dont know this as you are not a real student of the bible, as your God is your Theological opinions that you spew all over this forum, as guesses and half truths.

Now, in Gen, you have no Moses Law........so, this is why fornication is not listed, but the marriage is....listed as "one flesh".

Now, subsequent to Moses Law...you now have fornication and adultary revealed, and that is why Paul teaches what i teach, regarding two becoming "one flesh". (Male and Female).

Absolutely no requirement for a marriage ceremony in the scriptures or for most of history…

Did you ever read. the accout of Mary marrying Joseph. ?????

It was a WEDDING ceremony, and vow, in public, .... that was consumated later, and produced more childern later, but not Jesus., as he was Mary's "virgin born".
 

Behold

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the word fornication is that it skew most of history and Christianly regarding marriage and it causes sin

Ignorant.

Listen,

"fornication" does not cause sin, .

Lust causes sin.

And once Moses Law defined sex outside of the Marriage Vow as sin, then fornication was revealed.
 

Behold

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But I am a educated Theologian


Not according to your hatred of the KJV, as you have already lied about it, and you'll do it again.

Also, your bizarre theology, that is not related to Paul's, is mostly just you guessing, inspired by your opinions.

So, i have a question for you, so that the members here can discern your theology. @Grailhunter

Dont be afraid to answer it... with an explanation.

Here is the statement.
Explain why its TRUE.

"'"Jesus who saved the born again, always keeps them saved for eternity, no matter how they behave later.""".

So, explain why this is true, and feel free to use NT verses.. @Grailhunter
 

Grailhunter

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1. """""Fornication is not a biblical word. """" so i showed you the word as found in a BIBLE.
The word and the concept came out in error 3 centuries after the biblical era.

Let me explain....
In Gen, there was no Moses Law.......and you dont know this as you are not a real student of the bible, as your God is your Theological opinions that you spew all over this forum, as guesses and half truths.

Now, in Gen, you have no Moses Law........so, this is why fornication is not listed, but the marriage is....listed as "one flesh".

Now, subsequent to Moses Law...you now have fornication and adultary revealed, and that is why Paul teaches what i teach, regarding two becoming "one flesh". (Male and Female).

I am a educated Theologian….and yes part of my education was with the Hebrew University of Jerusalem.

I do not hate the King James Version of the Bible….in fact I collect very old King James Versions of the Bible….certain version are very valuable…..the Adulterer’s version….the Vinegar version….the murmurs version….the wife hater’s version….errors caused by type set printers. But the King James have errors about some very important topics... enough that it could create a religion separate from Christianity.

And again you will never find the word fornication or its concepts in the scriptures and you will never find a requirement for a wedding ceremony to be married in the scriptures.
 

Grailhunter

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Not according to your hatred of the KJV, as you have already lied about it, and you'll do it again.

Also, your bizarre theology, that is not related to Paul's, is mostly just you guessing, inspired by your opinions.

So, i have a question for you, so that the members here can discern your theology. @Grailhunter

Dont be afraid to answer it... with an explanation.

Here is the statement.
Explain why its TRUE.

"'"Jesus who saved the born again, always keeps them saved for eternity, no matter how they behave later.""".

So, explain why this is true, and feel free to use NT verses.. @Grailhunter

OSAS is a heresy from Hell.
It has been debated enough on this forum. Too stupid to waste my time on.
 

Grailhunter

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Did you ever read. the accout of Mary marrying Joseph. ?????

It was a WEDDING ceremony, and vow, in public, .... that was consumated later, and produced more childern later, but not Jesus., as he was Mary's "virgin born".

Not in the scriptures....and yes I know of the early writings.
And I know I have explained all this in detail but you just cannot learn, so you are wasting my time.