IndianaRob
Well-Known Member
Fair enough on grammar, and I'm not brushing it aside. But let me show you what I mean by interpretation, because it isn't guesswork — it's not me making the text say whatever I want it to say.Grammar's rules are objective. Interpretation is subjective. Grammar's rules should be applied first, to maximize the probability of correct interpretation.
I know you're talking about verse 26, but I'm using verse 27 to show how interpretation settles a point that grammar can't. My point all along has been that the person there is Christ, and here's why.
The Bible never mentions “the antichrist” making a covenant with many, or with anybody? You can't confirm something that was never made in the first place.
Did Jesus make a covenant with many? Yes.
Did Jesus' death cause the sacrifices to cease? Yes.
So when I get to that "he," I'm not guessing. Everything the verse describes is something Christ actually did. Why would I read it as anyone else?
Grammar can't prove it. That can.