(kriss;3853)
I just always thought this to be because Jesus had not been crucified yet so redemption by repentance did not exist as of yet. and after the crucifiction he went to visit those in hell. Is this a misconception on my part?
Redemption by repentance did exist, because all the saints of the OT were redeemed through their repentance and faith. This issue is quite independent of the cross, I think. The rich man was condemned not for lack of repentance and faith, but for his attitude of pitiless greed. The contrasting and saving attitude of Lazarus can be adduced from his name, which denotes reliance upon God alone. (This is the only parable in which a proper name is given.)Jesus did not, according to Peter, visit those in hell, but He preached to those 'in prison', who had not heard the gospel, and were therefore, presumably, waiting for judgement. It is also, presumably, too late for the gospel for those who have been judged and sent to hell.