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The scripture should be a sufficient answer to your posted question Matthew 26:24 24The Son of man goeth as it is written of him: but woe unto that man by whom the Son of man is betrayed! it had been good for that man if he had not been born.

God speaks to us through his written word today and only that way.

The only thing that was valid was their coming to the Lord of their own volition and being baptized into Christ accordingly. Anything prior to that was meaningless.

What you've provided is exactly the opposite. It's reasons why baptism of infants is unnecessary. And there's no prohibition cited against it, but when you examine all pertinent scriptures related to salvation, it becomes very apparent that it is unscriptural and makes no sense. And you...

Not at all a good point but a very presumptive one that would go against many other scriptures.

What does that mean or imply? You're reading into it something that's not there and that would be contrary to many other scriptures.

There are no instances of infants being baptized in the bible, nor do such baptisms make scriptural sense, since the first requirement prior to being baptized, is belief which infants are incapable of. They also can't repent of sin nor have any sin to repent of. Infant baptism is a useless, man...

Man-made lables are silly and irrelevant.

Too bad. No one has a choice.

What you've described, or the realization you've seemingly reached, is the crux of the fallacy of the so-called gifts of the Spirit people claim they have today, which they justify solely by their speaking in so-called "tongues". Their proof of the gifts being active today, is tongues only, and...

As a supplemental note, I recall working with someone named Mike Murphy many years ago. Not sure if it was at GD or GM; it's been a long, long time ago.

Haven't been there in a while but I have gotten a number of bibles there over the years.

Just a side note; I see you're very near by. I also live in Michigan, Sterling Heights. I guess we're neighbors!

If I'm not mistaken, the scriptures don't say. BUT, my guess is it's no different than the eleven apostles in Acts 2 on which the Holy Ghost FELL on unilaterally as promised them by the Lord in Luke 24:49, the power from on high, after which they spoke in tongues and the Jews were converted...

You've not read or studied this carefully enough. Read the account in Acts 9 and ALSO, Paul's (Saul) recount of the account in Acts 22. Pay attention to verses 12 and 17 in Acts 9. Verse 12 says "that he may receive his sight" which are the words that God spoke to Ananias starting at verse 11...

Because they're stupid. Don't be mislead by the lable "bible scholars"; it means nothing. Do your own study of God's word, research, and draw your own conclusions. Trust God not so-called "bible scholars".

You make no sense. Goodbye

Believe what you like. But obedience is required. It's not the water it's obedience, which baptism is. Read my response to another party here just posted.

It's really simple. If you believe, you'll take action and follow through by doing something about it and doing what God, through his word, tells you go do. If he says be baptized, that's what you do. If he says confess your belief with your mouth as the Ethiopian eunuch did, then that's what...

Taken from above verse 22 22 Seeing ye have purified your souls in obeying the truth through the Spirit unto unfeigned love of the brethren, see that ye love one another with a pure heart fervently: You think obedience is not required? Think again. Mk 16:15-16 15And he said unto them, Go ye...