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You posted "One needs grace first before they can obey or do a work." You are espousing a teaching of man here and not a teaching of Christ. No verse says one must be given grace before one is able to obey. The Bible shows the exact opposite in that one must first obey before receiving...

In my earlier post, baptism with the HS was a prophecy of Joel that was fulfilled therefore it has ended, ceased. Jesus did not end Himself on the cross, but He ended the OT by fulfilling it, (Eph 2:12-16). If the OT prophecies have not been fulfilled then all the OT laws are still in effect...

Tts 3:5 KJV "Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;" In your post, you stopped your quote at the word 'righteousness" and left out the words "we have done". Those 3 words are...

Hi, Joel's prophecy, which Peter quotes in Acts 2 and ties directly to the Apostles being baptized with the HS, has been fulfilled with both Jew (Apostles) and Gentile (Cornelius) being baptized with the HS whereby all flesh, Jew and Gentile, have been baptized with the HS meaning Joe's...

NT faith includes repentance, confession and water baptism for salvation is not possible apart from any of these. Therefore faith only, that is faith apart from obedience by repentance, confession and baptism cannot save as is James' point in James 2 faith apart from obedient works does not...

Hi, You cited two verses and assumed the type of baptism in those verses is spirit baptism but gave no proof to back that assumption up. Paul was under the great commission as all Christians are and the baptism of the great commission is human administered water baptism. Paul himself water...

Phil 1:5-6 5 "for your fellowship in furtherance of the gospel from the first day until now" 6 "being confident of this very thing, that he who began a good work in you will perfect it until the day of Jesus Christ" Paul's confidence is not based on OSAS for that idea is not even found in the...

When Paul penned back in the first century there is "one baptism" (Eph 4:5) he was referring to the water baptism of the great commission that is commanded, that is administered by men, that saves and is age lasting. That one baptism is the same today as it was some 2000 years ago for God's...

1) again, Cornelius is an example of God using the miraculous by using a man as the medium to convey His will. In Jn 11:40-52 we have another example of Caiaphas. Caiaphas was not a saved individual yet God used him as a medium to speak His word to men for Caiaphas spoke "not of himself"...

Cornelius himself is an example of an unsaved person being given the ability to speak in tongues by the HS. Again, having Cornelius saved before water baptism creates a host of impossibilities. Two questions: 1) Are you suggesting that if one is not baptized with the HS and does not speak in...

Baptism with the HS and speaking in tongues had NOTHING to do with the personal salvation of Cornelius. Even if Cornelius had not been baptized with the HS by the Lord, he would have been saved anyway when he obeyed Peter's command to be water baptized (Acts 10:47-48) having his sins remitted...

Do I get me a un-e-form to wear?

Hi, Eph 2:5------------------grace >>>>>>>>>>>> saves Eph 2:8------------------faith >>>>>>>>>>>> saves Acts 2:38----------------repent/baptized >>>>> saves/remits sins Rom 10:9-10-----------confession >>>>>>>> saves Since there is but one way to be saved then grace includes/requires faith...

John 1:17 "For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ." John is making a distinction between "law" and "grace" thereby making a distinction between the two major covenants found within the Bible, the OT law of Moses is "law" and the NT covenant of Christ called...

Hi, ----F.F. Bruce: "baptism in the New Testament is always baptism in water unless the context shows it to be something else; that is to say, the word is always to be understood literally unless the context indicates a figurative meaning". (Questions Answered, p. 106). Nothing in Eph 4:5 or...

Those Jews were vessels of wrath because they would not obey. Paul says they were lost for they would not obey the righteousness of God (Romans 10:3). So they were not lost/vessels of wrath due to a capricious, unconditional decree God made before the world began. Roman 9:22 "What if God...

The basis in receiving mercy is obedience, that idea is found throughout the Bible. The Jews would not obey God (2 Thessalonians 2:15-16) hence they were vessels of God's wrath. Being made vessels of honor (2 Timothy 2:21) or vessels of wrath is not a baseless, arbitrary choice made by God...

Paul says nothing at all in Romans that receiving mercy is out of man's control whereby God chooses for men which ones will be saved or lost. As I showed from various verses, obedience has been the basis as to those who receive mercy. The case of two kings: Pharaoh did not obey therefore did...

Romans 9:16 "So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy." 1) we can know that this verse does NOT mean man has no responsibility to obey the will of God for such an idea contradicts all the verses that requires man to obey as Hebrews 5:9, 2...

Does John 6:37 Teach Calvinist “Predestination”? By Wayne Jackson “Please explain John 6:37. Who are those ‘given’ to Christ? Does this mean that they were selected by God before the foundation of the world, and are ‘elected’ — irrespective of their personal obedience?” The passage under...