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1st of all, what does any of this have to do with the subject of tongues?? Secondly, what is your point in citing the below passage? Are you suggesting that there are 2 Holy Spirits because of this? Jesus said "I and my Father are one" John 10:30 (KJV). So, are there 3 Gods or one God? And...

You totally lost me with the logic presented by your citing John 12:28-9 as having anything at all to do with our discussion of speaking in tongues and/or its validity today.

I was simply quoting your words but didn't finish the sentence of yours. Since God is one, it's the indwelling of God's Spirit that baptized believers receive upon their baptism into Christ. So, there is no differentiation to be made: God is God. God's Spirit is God's Spirit. There is no Spirit...

What are "tongues of the Holy Spirit"? To use 1 Cor 13:1 as validation of angelic tongues able to be spoken, is totally incorrect and a misinterpretation of the scripture, as it's simply saying that if you were able to speak with any kind of tongue irregardless of its origin, and have not...

I did not say nor infer that it has no applicability to us. All scripture does, but we must read carefully, understand the context and reasoning, and sort things out accordingly.

The manifestations of the Spirit, gifts, are listed 8-10. Agree, disagree, doesn't matter. That's them

It, "the word of knowledge", is listed as one of the gifts, contrary to your assertion. See verse 8 in the below. It's given BY the Spirit, not "comes with the spirit". 1Cor 12:4-10 4Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit. 5And there are differences of administrations, but the...

It may be your contention, but it's not supported by scripture and is a very weak one. It's very clear that tongues, considered a lesser of the manifestations or gifts of the Spirit, is not the gift of the Spirit spoken of in Acts 2:38. The indwelling of the Spirit itself IS the gift of God...

Simply sorting it out in relative terms as most people erroneously misunderstand and misinterpret what was said to the people of that day and time as though it was written to us, or rather, the universal church of today. It wasn't written to us today nor can be assumed to have the same meaning...

Except this isn't apples and oranges. Gifts mean manifestations although manifestations is the more correct term

Please clarify or rewrite. I have no idea what you're trying to say

Manifestations of the Spirit are commonly referred to as "gifts" today. I simply used the common word, "gifts", but in reality, gifts of the Spirit and manifestations of the Spirit are one in the same

Yes, the gifts of the Spirit is synonymous with manifestations of the Spirit. They are one in the same.

Not my attempts, it's what the words say and suggest, which words are not mine. At this point in this dialog, believe what you like.

1 cor12:7 Does that mean every, single, person, or everyone to which a gift has been given according to God's will and purpose as 1 Cor 12:28 and the other scriptures I cited infer? And the other 2 scriptures you cited are irrelevant to the discussion. Yes, all those baptized into the body of...

If you read 1 Cor, it's obvious that they were DESIROUS of spiritual gifts inferring that not all received a gift of some sort when the letter was penned by Paul. Don't forget, it's gifts or manifestations of the Spirit being discussed here and not the Spirit itself which all baptized believers...

Most translations say might, a few say to receive, the Greek interlinear says might receive.

Not sure what your point is. The power from on high was promised to the 11 apostles per Luke 24:49 and was fulfilled starting with Acts 2 at which time the Spirit manifested itself by falling on them. If you're trying to find significance by how many times the Spirit did such along with Acts 10...

No, I wouldn't agree cuz if you follow the text as I laid out, it appears that it was the apostles, and if so, they were the ones on which the power from on high was bestowed