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Yes, water baptism is necessary, Acts 2:38; Mark 16:15-16; Matthew 28:19-20; John 3:5; Romans 6:3-5; 1 Cor 1:12-13; Galatians 3:27; Ephesians 5:26; Titus 3:5.... "... for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat:" Mt 7:13 The...

Hi, Christ suffered for us where we would not have to suffer in eternal torment. Yet Isa 53:5 does not say our sins, our guilt and penalty of sin was imputed into Christ. Christ offering Himself on the cross provided a way for man to have his sins forgiven, to be cast away, washed away by the...

Again, hamartia is used many times in the LXX as 'sin offering' or sin sacrifice for that is the inherent meaning of the word. This is why Hebrews 10:8 KJV translates it as 'sacrifices for sin'. The word 'sin' in 2 Cor 5:21 is used figuratively, as a synecdoche where it includes sin offering...

First, I am not the one using the thief as proof that water baptism is necessary or unnecessary. Yet you are trying to use the thief as proof that water baptism is not necessary therefore putting the burden of proof upon you to prove he had never been water baptized. Secondly Hebrews 9:15-17...

---Romans 5:14 does not even mention original sin, you assume that idea into the verse. ---If original sin were true, then everyone would inherit the same exact sin from Adam at birth. There would be no need for any contrast among sins if all inherit the same sin. The contrast of sins is...

I may have misunderstood the point you were trying to make, but you did post (my emp) "... what does the pastor say as you are descending, and then ascending?" (Post #447) I was pointing out nothing has to be said, no word formula must be said when one is buried in a watery grave or...

Again, you provide no verse that definitively states the thief had never been baptized. You simply ASSUME he had never been baptized, assume he was not of those in Mark 1:4-5. Secondly the thief is NOT an example of NT gospel salvation. Hebrews 9:16-17 Christ's NT gospel would not take effect...

Romans 5:14 death is a consequence of sin and sin reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that did not sin the same sin as Adam. The point you choose to overlook is if all inherit Adam's sin then there is no reason for a distinction to be made between Adam's sin and the sin of those that...

I know of no words that must be spoken over the one being baptized. Baptism "in the name of Jesus Christ" (Acts 2:38) with the phrase "in the name of" meaning by the authority of Jesus Christ. One is saved for having obediently submitted to God's command to be water baptized where they will...

The verse does NOT say there is no basis as to why God will have mercy upon one person and not another. God does not act in a capricious manner in extending His mercy. Just because Romans 9:18 does not give a basis does not mean no basis exists at all. Jeremiah 18:7-10: At what instant I...

The man made idea of original sin is usually attributed to Augustine and made more popular by men like John Calvin. From Wikipedia " Augustine's formulation of original sin after 412 CE was popular among Protestant reformers, such as Martin Luther and John Calvin, who equated original sin with...

The Spirit would work in man by the Spirit's word either being read and/or preached. THose in Acts 2 heard the word preached by Peter and that word pricked them in their heart, (Acts of the Apostles 2:37). They heard the word (faith comes by hearing, Romans 10:17) and obeyed the word by...

God cannot lie nor does God change. When God requires baptism in His word that is truth (John 17:17) but then does not require baptism that would be a change, a lie.

The claim is made the thief was never baptized. What verse definitively states the thief was never baptized? Until that verse is produced the whole argument is based on assumption. Babies that die are not lost for they have no sin. All are born innocent and without sin, original sin is a man...

In regards to Eph 4:5 and "one baptism" F.F. Bruce noted: “baptism in the New Testament is always baptism in water unless the context shows it to be something else; that is to say, the word is always to be understood literally unless the context indicates a figurative meaning” (Questions...

Water baptism has been commanded therefore if man does not obey that command it is man's culpability. Baptism with the Holy Spirit was never commanded to anyone, only promised to the Apostles Acts 1:1-5. Hence baptism with the HS is not something man can obey. --Why did the Spirit send for...

God is not a flip flopper constantly changing His mind about the NT gospel plan of salvation. If you think God will make exceptions for baptism, then will God make exceptions for repentance and save the impenitent? Will God make exceptions about belief and save the unbeliever? Romans 9:15...

hi, I do not see how this changes John 5:24 or Mark 16:16. There is a logical progression of order found in both verses: John 5:24 hear>>>>believe>>>>>>everlasting life Mark 16:16 Believe>>>>>baptized>>>>saved Man can never rearrange, change this logical order.

Hi, I do not agree. There is but one gospel that contains one great commission with Matthew Mark and Luke all giving their accounts of this one commission. Peter's point out clearly Jew and Gentile are saved in like manner Acts 15:11. From how the Jews were saved in Acts 2 and Gentiles in...

---Just because baptism is not specifically mention is salvific verses does not exclude it. Grace or the blood of Christ are not specifically mentioned in all salfvic verse but that does not exclude them from salvation. ---John 5:24 does not contradict Mark 16:16. To know how to be saved one...