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When does this “one-time act” of justification occur? For how long to you have to “obey the Gospel” to be once-and-forever justified? One day? One week? One month? One year? Ten years? If you can’t tell me, how does a Christian know if he has been forever-justified or not?

Oh, so a believer should give in to every temptation and sin. That is very bad advice. Well, it is true that once you are granted salvation, you can never lose it - but you are not granted salvation until after you die and are judged “worthy” of salvation (Rev 3:4) by Christ on Judgement Day...

Sorry, but our argument fails on account of being illogical, not to mention being unscriptural. You say justification is “a one-time act of God and is never reversed … only those who obey the Gospel are justified”, but then you argue that after being once-and-forever justified, a Christian...

You’ve still got it wrong. In Gal 3, Paul is talking “falling from grace” by putting faith in the rituals of Mosaic Law, such as circumcision. He is not referring to the works of righteousness that justify and save us (James 2:24) and without which faith is “dead” (James 2:26) and without...

What? No! “according to the flesh” in Romans 4:2 refers to man without God and faith - so it is saying, IF Abraham had no faith and was acting "according to the flesh" alone, his works would impress only men, not God. The same analogy is used by Paul in Gal 3:2-3, where “faith” is called...

Neither of these verses imply salvation by faith alone. What does that mean? Paul preaches salvation by faith and works in Romans, Galatians and 1Cor 6. 1John also preaches salvation by faith and works; as does Revelation. Are you going to dismiss those books too?

James 2:21 says Abraham was justified by his works - please explain.

No, that is not what Heb 11:6 implies - it does not imply that faith ALONE pleases God and that faith ALONE saves you. You're reading something into the text that isn't there. And "Justified by Faith" doesn't imply salvation through faith ALONE. James says we are justified by works, but that...

Hilarious. So obeying Jesus' commandment to "love one another" does not please God. Jesus also said, "If you love me you will obey my commandments" (John 14:15). But you say, "No, Jesus, you're wrong - obeying the commandments does not please God."

An address please. I want to check out this Church you talk about. It does exist doesn't it? Or maybe you just imagine it exists.

Which Church is "the one"? 1Tim 3:15 says the Church is the "pillar and foundation of the truth". So which Church has "the truth"?

How do you know you "have eternal life"? Did Jesus send you a certificate of salvation or a ticket to Heaven?

I haven't noticed any "pearls" from you yet.

You've misinterpreted Romans 4:2. It is referring to works ALONE - ie, works done without faith. That is make clear in the previous verse - "according to the flesh" - works done "according to the flesh". So that passage is simply saying works done without faith only impress men, not God...

So your saying, when James 2:21 says Abraham was justified by his works (ie, offering to sacrifice his son Isaac), he was not justified before God. If he was not justified before God by his works, whom was he justified before?

In other words, you can't tell me where you can find the Church, and where, as Paul did, you can check that your doctrine is correct. Neither can you tell me where, as Paul did, you can have doctrinal disputes settled. You're all talk and no action.

It’s not a “False Gospel” - James 2:26 says “faith without works is dead” - in other words, if you don’t obey God’s commandments, your faith is useless and won’t save you. So God rewards disobedience and evil with more grace? If so, the more you sin, the more grace God will send you -...

Being justified does not mean all the sins we will ever commit are “forever forgiven”. Justification doesn’t apply to future sins. Justification is a moment-by-moment thing and justification can be lost due to loss of faith or “deadly” sins (1John 5:16). Justification, once gained, can be...

Oh, I get it … you think the word “flesh” in Gal 3:3 is referring to the “desires/works of the flesh” in Gal 5:16-21. Sorry, but no, it doesn’t - the word “flesh” in Gal 3:3 refers to human works - more specifically, “works of the law” of Moses in the previous verse (just as “Spirit” in v.3...

Wrong. Read the previous verse, Romans 4:1 - it says "according to the flesh". Do you know what that means? It means the opposite of "done in faith" - it means done without faith. That's what the next verse is referring to: Abraham works done without faith ("according to the flesh") would...