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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Was He fixated on it while delivering His Olivet Discourse?
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Yes. He had loved (past tense) them, and He continued (past tense) to love them for the duration of His time with them before His departure. Nothing to do with the end of the world. :laughing:
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Jesus was the greatest preterist who ever lived. He fulfilled every one of the OT prophecies about Himself long before 70 AD.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Do you understand what tense "loved" is? :laughing:
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Matthew 24 2 And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down. 3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    John 13 1 Now before the feast of the passover, when Jesus knew that his hour was come that he should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them unto the end. He loved them unto the end of the world which had not and has not yet occurred?
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    What cult is that? :laughing:
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    The Four Stages of Mankind's Redemption:

    Typical dispen disinfo. They came to be a century before the end of the Reformation. "The term, which may be derived from the name of a Swiss political leader, the Genevan burgomaster Besançon Hugues (1491–1532), was in common use by the mid-16th century." Huguenots - Wikipedia The...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    "the whole multitude of men living at the same time" is the applicable definition in the greatest number of NT verses.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Which post?
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    1074 [e] genea γενεὰ generation N-NFS "3. the whole multitude of men living at the same time: Matthew 24:34;"
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    That generation would not and did not see/experience vs. 30-31. Those verses were not included in "all these things".
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Futurized fantasy. :laughing:
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    I don't understand your point. The disciples were not asked. They did the asking. OK let me revise that. It is simply inconceivable that with the discourse which relates to the 70 AD era, there is no reference to its end.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Future to it. "c. of things future; then (at length) when the thing under discussion takes place (or shall have taken place):"
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    We agree with the Judaean Christians who told us that it wasn't a futurized fantasy. :laughing:
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Are you asking what happened during the tribulation? Josephus is the primary source for that. We're not told. Could begin circa 66 AD with the Roman advance on Jerusalem, ending circa 70 AD with Jerusalem's destruction. No. "Then" can mean either "at that time" or "at a future time". "c...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Verse 29 is an example of what also appears in Acts 2:20 i.e. an apocalyptic idiom describing events of great significance, true of both the birth of the NT Church, and the death of the OT economy. Verses 30-31 are Second Coming.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    So in the Matthew 24:6 ongoing application to all believers, " end " is the Second Coming. And in the Matthew 24:6 historical application to the disciples, " end " is the Second Coming. The first is true, the second is untenable. It is simply inconceivable that with all of the discourse which...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Is there any instance of " end " within Matthew 24 that refers to the end occurring in 70 AD? Or do all instances of " end " in Matthew 24 refer exclusively to the Second Coming?
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