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Where does Jesus say "I and my Father are ECHAD"? Echad does not mean "united one"! See posts 79 and 112.

post 315: "The Satanic translation shows itself for what it is from the beginning of Genesis and the beginning of John with "active force" for Spirit of God (a deliberate mistranslation) and "a god" for "was God." The people who produced it were not even Christians so I am not surprised that it...

So you can call it "satanic" and won't provide any specific examples or honest evidence. This is not how anyone who is to be considered honest should act. Sad. I can say with all honesty that nearly all Bible translations have dishonestly translated in nearly 6000 places [YHWH]. The NWT (and...

Show us the 5 most "satanic" major scriptures you are aware of in the NWT. General statements which themselves demonize should be accompanied with specific examples and honest evidence.

There is only one personal name of God which is used many thousands of times in the OT Hebrew texts: YHWH ("Jehovah" or "Yahweh"). All other "names" are titles or descriptions. Even though the KJV has deleted that name (Jehovah) many thousands of times and in nearly all cases replaced it with...

................................................. 1 Tim. 3:16 ("God was manifest in the flesh") As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God “manifest in the flesh.” Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a...

Immanuel Should Jesus really be considered to be God because he was symbolically “named” Immanuel (Is. 7:14; Mt. 1:23) which means “God is with us”? No more so than Gabriel was calling himself God when he visited Mary and declared: “The Lord is with thee” - Luke 1:28. Nor did Zacharias...

I Am michaelvpardo, please go back to post #39 and read it carefully.

Nolette #199: Deuteronomy 6:4 King James Version 4 Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord: This is a very curious statement for God to say. Why would He have to say He is only one ? And why did He use the ordinal Yachid instead of the cardinal echad...

........................................... ↑ Nolette's erroneous post on John's Grammar: 1. How much of this do you actually know and have studied and are not just cutting and pasting without learning. 2. Yes these are formal rules, but you ignore other rules. The anarthrous argument is old...

Grace wrote above: "So now I have to be a grammatical Expert to understand Many Plain and Clear Scriptures?" ....................................... I have written it in simple, easy-to-learn fashion. Any beginning NT Greek student should be able to follow it. In fact anyone who understands...

................................. This is one of my own studies as I said. The first one concerning John 1:1c alone is my 50+ page DEF study. I have personally read the source of every quote in it. (It took so long to finish because of the intense work required pre-computer and for me to...

E. John 1:1c in NT Greek (cont.): The above lessons show that word order (predicate noun before the verb as found in the NT Greek of John 1:1c) does not change the meaning to an understood article (“the”) as Colwell’s Rule suggests or some nebulous ‘qualitative’ or ‘essence’ meaning as some...

D. John 1:1c in NT Greek (cont.): It’s been many years since I looked up all the clauses in John’s writing which had predicate nouns (also called predicate nominatives). Then I made a list of all of them which are parallel to John 1:1c (predicate noun [count noun] coming before the verb). I...

C. John 1:1c in NT Greek (cont.): But, you may ask, isn’t there a significance to the reversed word order in the Greek of Jn 1:1c (‘god was the word’) which is, in English, ‘the word was god.’? If you will examine a good NT interlinear, you will find that word order is generally meaningless...

B. John 1:1c in NT Greek (cont.): John 1:1c in NT Greek (cont.): The next step in finding John’s intended meaning of John 1:1c is to look up the meanings of theos in a good NT lexicon. Numerous Trinitarian scholars [see footnote] admit that this word was also used in scripture for angels...

.......................................... The best way to determine John's meaning for theos in John 1:1c is to carefully examine his use of NT Greek Grammar in every case that is honestly parallel to that of John 1:1c. The only trouble is, nobody will actually do that; "it's just too much...

Post #97, Roland Nolette: "Echad means one as singular, but also one as a "plural one" . Hard to define it. It gives the sense that God though one is formed of more than one. Take for example a baseball team. It has a roster of 26 individuals, but yet they make up one ball team."...

....................................... In addition to insisting that echad means “plural oneness” some also insist that, if God had intended the meaning of “absolute oneness” (singleness, only one individual) at Deut. 6:4, he would have used the word yachid (or yacheed). So let’s...

"One" Bible writers consistently described groups of individuals as “one” figuratively in the sense of their being “united in will and purpose.” Here’s how one trinitarian reference book states it: “‘One’ also expresses the unity between Christ and the Father (Jn 10:30), the union...