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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    If you wanted to be ignored, you should have said so.
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    The Four Stages of Mankind's Redemption:

    Yes, they are. If you can't understand them, just leave them for those who can.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    You are making the destruction of Jerusalem like the dispenites.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    "Immediately after" is close enough for me.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    The destruction of Babylon. Apocalyptic hyperbole. Not the Second Coming. Isaiah 13 1 The burden of Babylon, which Isaiah the son of Amoz did see. 10 For the stars of heaven and the constellations thereof shall not give their light: the sun shall be darkened in his going forth, and the moon...
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    The Four Stages of Mankind's Redemption:

    Still waiting for you to show any other example of a mutilated dangling semi-covenant that doesn't understand past and present verb tenses.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    It refers back to verses 1-14 for the reasons given. Jesus' descriptions, warnings, and predictions were relevant and applicable to His disciples; He didn't tell them to go for coffee whilst He talked to a dispenized futurized wind. :laughing: We don't need Revelation to understand Matthew 24.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    It is to laugh. Israel's city, temple, and nation were destroyed. Israel was comprised of both Jews and Gentiles. Yes, I'm an anti-Jew-Gentile racist. :laughing:
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Additionally, unsurprisingly, those who racialize "generation" do so to perpetuate the modernist dispensational delusion. I'm surprised that you would align with them.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    I'm certain that none of them recognized genetic ubiquity, without which understanding the racialization of the associated Scriptures is nonsense.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    There's certainly nothing restricting the connection to verse 15 being only verse 14; the "therefore" is in reality the culmination and climax of everything in the previous 14 verses. Jesus is saying in verse 15 that in light of everything that I'm predicting and informing and warning you of in...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    3. the whole multitude of men living at the same time: Matthew 24:34; What recognized Greek expert disagrees with James Strong about that? Is there evidence that James Strong did not put his trust in the Holy Spirit?
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    There is no justification for performing such a "clawback" that I can see in Matthew 24. "Therefore" Scripturally, logically, and reasonably connects verse 14 to verse 15.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Post 885. Applicable as well to Matthew 23.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Today the Jewish race is ubiquitous across humanity, because after more than three millennia of natural genetic dispersion and diffusion, the Abrahamic genome is present in the entire population. Thus, all of us are Jews, just as all of us are Gentiles. So to define "generation" racially means...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Here are some of Strong's definitions of "therefore": 1. οὖν a conjunction indicating that something follows from another necessarily; 2. Hence, it is used in drawing a conclusion and in connecting sentences together logically, then, therefore, accordingly, consequently, these things being so...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    His Greek, which he has used to the vast benefit of the Church, is better than yours and mine.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Depends on the definition. If we define the old covenant age to include its physical trappings and vestiges, then it does extend to 70 AD.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Yes. So I don't have confidence in you, nor you in me.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    In Matthew 24:15 we see "therefore". We know the question. sml What is it there for?
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