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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Jesus does not tell us why He thought that they would or could be troubled. But He did think that they would or could be troubled. One possible reason could have been the abrupt increase in the frequency of wars and commotions (Luke 21:9) within the Roman Empire, as documented in the the...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Yes, believers understand that persecution has always been an ongoing reality. But Jesus' descriptions of persecutions were directed specifically to His "ye" and "you" disciples, and fulfilled specifically in the book of Acts, as I've cited. That is past history and will never be specifically...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    The overarching counterquestion to your questions is: Why did Jesus bring these things up?
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    The Four Stages of Mankind's Redemption:

    Tell God that the Lollards, Hugenots, Hussites, et al who stayed true to Him had no sway. Tell us what He tells you. :laughing: You'll be waiting until you decide to understand past and present verb tenses. In other words, forever. :laughing:
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Then why did Jesus caution them (or more accurately, reassure them to "be not troubled" in verse 6)? Obviously He knew that they could or would be troubled without His reassurance. It makes sense to me.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Matthew 24 6 And ye shall hear of wars and rumours of wars: see that ye be not troubled: for all these things must come to pass, but the end is not yet. 7 For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom: and there shall be famines, and pestilences, and earthquakes, in divers...
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    The Four Stages of Mankind's Redemption:

    You're the one saying that as you're equating orthodox Christianity with Romanism. Heretical according to you? Are you a closet papist? The Lollards were led by John Wycliffe. Any idea who he was? :laughing:
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    The point was so that Jesus' disciples would not be deceived into interpreting them as signs of an imminent end (verse 6). Jesus realized the possibility of such deception so He cautioned against it.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Untrue. Matthew 24 3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world? Check the Greek. That end is a sunteleia end, not a telos end.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Because in Matthew 24, that's sunteleia. What adjoining verses in a single chapter does it go back and forth between? What global things? Everything in those verses can be explained locally historically.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Telos: Means "end," "conclusion," "purpose," or "goal." It can refer to the definitive termination of something or the final outcome. In the context of time, it can describe a specific moment in time when something ends. That is a pertinent explanation of why "telos" is applicable in this...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    There is a need to differentiate between the end of the age and the end of the OT economy. Hence "sunteleia" for the former and "telos" for the latter. There is no rationale for using "telos" for the latter if it is in fact "sunteleia". But it's not "sunteleia". The alternative is "telos"...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    The Matthew 24:14 end is a "telos" end. The Matthew 28:19 end is a "sunteleia" end, the same as Matthew 24:3. Thus we again see the distinction between the two different types of ends. The Matthew 28:19 end does not apply to the Matthew 24:14 end.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Denial of the evangelization of "all nations" as described by Paul. When Paul says "all nations" in Romans 16:26, what do you think is his definition of "all nations"? If God could evangelize faraway Britain and India, do you think that maybe, just maybe, He could evangelize all nations even...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Thankfully, I don't share your doubt and denial.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Are you sure you want to claim that it wasn't? I have complete confidence and certainty that God's Empowerment of His Early Church was more than abundant to enable them to preach His Gospel to "all nations" before 60 AD, as defined and declared by Christ and Paul in Matthew 24:14 and Romans...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    FAMINES, PESTILENCES, EARTHQUAKES The Bible records that there was famine “throughout all the world. . . in the days of Claudius Caesar” (Acts 11:28). Judea was especially hard hit by famine. “The disciples, every man according to his ability, determined to send relief unto the brethern which...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    No offense intended, bro. Thought I'd inject a little humor. We're still almost clones. :laughing: So Paul is right whether he's talking about all literal nations, or whether he's talking about all nations of the known world. And he's confirming the associated prophecy of Jesus in Matthew...