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What's the difference between Jewish Christians and Gentile Christians? Whatever your answer is... will not be how God looks at it. That which is spiritual is not looking at what part of the country one lives at. And the Scriptures write based on what is spiritual. The religious world does not...

It does not say that it's about Gentile Christians. It does not even say he's writing to Gentiles. He says my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved. For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge. For they being ignorant...

If he was addressing Gentile Christians. Then why tell them how to get born again?

So many have a hard time understanding this because they look at the Scriptures through their own image. It's why we have people teaching that Christians should understand that Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them. And...

I did not see a biblical question for me to answer. A question with a verse.

Example: Romans 10:5 For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them. If we do not follow after to whom it is addressed and mix them all together, by jumbling the whole Bible together: Law, Gospel, Grace, Judgment, Glory, Jew...

If Gentiles are saved then they are no longer Gentiles is the language the Bible is using. It's a big deal because without guys like me there will be guys like you posting data about Romans 11 and saying it's about Christians when the subject matter is not about Christians.

I'm 90 miles from Syracuse and go there often.

It's not a matter of it agreeing with me. It's a matter of not agreeing with God since that language of "Gentile Christians" is not mentioned in the New Testament.

In the Republican party we have a whole bunch of liberals who call themselves Republicans. Thus, the Conservatives are fighting two wars. The Democrats and half or more than half of the Democrats that call themselves Republicans.

Because when we read the Scriptures we need to interpret the meaning as the words are used in the text. When and where we start adding all kinds of our ideas will be the day there will be nothing left of the Scriptures. When God says the saints He does not mean Jews. When He says the church of...

John 1:14 The "Word" is the wisdom, plan or purpose of God and the Word became flesh as Jesus Christ. Thus, Jesus Christ was the Word in the flesh, which is shortened to the Word for ease of speaking. Scripture is also the Word in writing. Everyone agrees that the Word in writing had a...

He called Jews and Gentiles to be Christian. He did not call Christians to be Jewish Christians. And He did not call certain people because the New Testament has places where it talks about those who God called. I think God called everyone and only certain people answered the call. In Ephesians...

You refer to Gentiles identifying with their country of origin. The New Testament does not.

It does not say all things were made by Jesus in John 1:3. Jesus Christ is not a lexical definition of logos. The verse does not say "In the beginning was Jesus." The "Word" is not synonymous with Jesus, or even the "Messiah."

Let's look at the first verse in the number one spot that you give which is... Romans 9:24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles? The word Christian is not mentioned in this verse.

The fact that the logos "became" flesh shows it did not exist that way before. There is no pre-existence for Jesus in this verse other than his figurative "existence" as the plan, purpose or wisdom of God for the salvation of man. The same is true with the "word" in writing. It had no literal...

Adam is called a “type” of Jesus Christ (Romans 5:14). The word translated as “type” in many English versions is the translation of the Greek word tupos (τύπος) which can be defined as “a type, pattern, model, or example of something else.” Although the KJV translates tupos as “figure” most of...

But there are problems with that such as there is no single verse that says Jesus was both God and man and that's why the God-man doctrine is built from many verses.

Find a verse outside of Romans 9 through 11 that says Gentile Christian. In fact, give me a verse that says that anywhere.