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I think that, while we are not justified through law-keeping (Romans 3:20, Galatians 2:16), that if we are truly born of God we do not and cannot sin (1 John 3:9). And sin is the transgression of the law (1 John 3:4). So then, it is about not putting the cart before the horse. The one who...

Which verse?

That is not a valid argument against what she is saying because of Matthew 7:13-14.

My flesh rises up on me about once every two weeks; and I am ashamed to say that I have given in to it on many occasions. Indwelling sin is not a false doctrine, it is biblical (1 John 1:8, Romans 7:18, 1 Timothy 1:15). The reality is that if we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves...

He says "I am chief"...present tense.

In my own theology, I believe that, even though 1 John 1:8 dictates that I have indwelling sin, that this is no excuse to commit sins in my life; because indwelling sin can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) and therefore inept so that it has no more dominion over me...

@CharismaticLady, It is a faithful and trustworthy saying (that we all ought to adopt to ourrselves) that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am chief (1 Timothy 1:15). Do you adopt this saying to your own life? If not, why not?

God is not going to exclude those who think according to western thought patterns from His kingdom over the way that they think.

I always considered that sin was on the outside and iniquity on the inside.

If he was not including himself in the statement, the more accurate and truthful word would have been "you". Which brings up another point. If John had used the word "you", the question would arise, why us and not you too? Why, John, are you exempt from having deceived yourself if you say...

1 John 2:1 is a catch-all in the case that one doesn't live up to 1 John 3:9 perfectly. It indicates that we are saved by grace and not by living perfect lives; although we are saved unto living perfect lives.

I saw the possibility of justifying disobedience in his response...and while his understanding of the gospel is accurate, there is still the possibility that he was using those doctrines to justify disobedience. The passages that I brought up afterward would declare that disobedience is not...

He was using the literary tactic of IDENTIFICATION; as he said was his style in 1 Corinthians 9:22. This particular tactic in its execution utilizes the word "I" rather than "we". To use the word "we" would be to defeat the purpose of the tactic...it would be to include the people being spoken...

A sinner in the sense that he had indwelling sin (1 John 1:8, Romans 7:18; 1 Timothy 1:15, Jeremiah 17:9). Not a sinner in that he very likely did not commit sins (1 John 3:9, 1 John 3:6, 1 John 2:17); for that the element of sin was rendered dead within him (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans...

I most certainly believe that in 1 John 1:8, the apostle John included himself when he said "we" in that verse. Romans 4 is about justification by faith, primarily. So, does that mean that once I become a Christian, if I sin afterwards, the sins that I commit after becoming a Christian are...

We do not suffer in order to be saved; but we suffer because we are saved. What I mean by this, is that, as believers, we have a different paradigm than does the world; and it is not unheard of that men of the world will attempt to squeeze us into the mold and paradigm of this world through...

Indwelling sin is not taken away but covered (1 John 1:8, Romans 4:7-8). Practical sin is taken away...when we are born again we ought to cease from sinning in the practical sense (1 John 3:9; 1 John 3:6, 1 John 2:17).

He actually said that to everyone who would be born again of the Holy Spirit from that time forward. I am really not preaching relativism. I am preaching that every person is going to interpret anything that they hear through the filter of their minds. So, it is better to get my information...

Bye now.

See Revelation 3:4.