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That statement also makes zero sense. Baptism is Baptism. The bible is clear, tge Greek language is clear, and I'm simply parroting what the BIBLE says. Wrong?? How can it be?? It ain't.

For the record and to correct people that don't understand the scriptures correctly regarding the falling of the Holy Ghost in Acts 2 and 10, these are the only instances where the Spirit fell as such on anyone without the laying on of the apostle's hands, and in both cases it was for a sign...

Goodbye

This ain't worth discussing with you. Goodbye

You are delusional

Proves absolutely zero or less! Nowhere does it say there is more than one gospel. NOWHERE! You are dreaming a bunch of nonsense. Who was tge 1st to baptize a Gentile? And what message was it, and it did include baptism? Hint: It wasn't Paul.

Paul wasn't sent to the Gentiles with a different message he was simply called out for that work mission, like an ambassador. Same message different messenger.

This makes no sense. There is one gospel message and it's consistent for everyone which includes all the scriptures and all the writers, not segregated, nor is one gospel message segregated. Was the Ethiopian eunuch a Jew? I don't think so. He was taught by Philip and Philip's teaching included...

Yes, for sure, but we're fortunate to have these clarifiers here!

Yes! We need people who can correct the Lord and his inspired writers because none of them were smart enough to really get their point across necessitating people like on this forum that can restate what the Lord and his writers really were trying to say! Praise God for these truly gifted people!

So, because the inspired NT writers weren't too smart and their language was too simplistic and confusing, it takes someone like you to clarify and restate what they really meant and were trying to say, right? Good thing we got people like you around to clarify the simplistic words of the...

You continue to go to GREAT lengths to try to manipulate the simple, straightforward, words of the bible by adding assumed words youve made up, assuming that all scriptures contain or should contain a complete message repeatedly, and using your illogical logic to justify silly positions that...

Goodbye. You make zero sense

Somebody within YOUR belief system, catholicism, changed and perverted the baptism process, I didn't say who cuz I don't know nor care, but someone or ones changed it without authorization from God, by their own self proclaimed authority. The result? Millions of unsaved people. If you were...

You mean POTUS? Trick question, joke right? AOC wouldn't make a good anything anywhere.

Let's not get sidetracked. We're talking about THE great tribulation, and you said Matthew 24 was it and it's not because it and Luke parallel passages are the same tribulation event and that's the seige of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.

Then it's the same tribulation that's found in the parallel passages of Luke 21 which clearly states Jerusalem and is contrary to your previous statement. This is discussing the fall of Jerusalem in 70 A.D, and in the parallel passages of Mark 13, it's referred to as affliction, suffering...

Is the tribulation you're speaking of the one that's spoken of in Matthew 24? And initially, since I typically read from the kjv, I simply looked at the verbiage therein which never refers to 'THE great tribulation', but only "great tribulation". Personally, I think the kjvis right in case.

Does the word 'cat' have a specific meaning? Likewise, does the word 'dog' have a specific meaning? If someone used the word cat to reference a dog, would that be OK? Could someone, cuz they felt like it, say the words cat and dog now mean the same thing? Well, there you go. That's what someone...

You are also assuming rev 7 relates to a future yet to happen event and not a near term event that the 7 churches of Asia, to whom this was written, could relate to. You are also assuming Rev was written after 70AD. There was great tribulation at the time of the seige and fall of Jerusalem in...