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Actually, I did.

So then, God raises them up...they attack the holy city...fire of God comes down from heaven and kills them...and then God raises them up another time so that He can judge them at the GWT judgment? Sorry, it makes more sense to me that the people who attack the holy city are the descendants of...

Tell me how it is that you think that someone who has a fallen nature can also be without sin? I was under the impression that these terms were synonymous to a certain extent.

You said: But I had already responded with: If you think for a little while I believe that you might be able to see how this is an adequate answer to your question. But then again, maybe it has and/or is going to go over your head because of the principle in 1 Corinthians 2:14, 2...

You are simply missing the fact that scripture teaches that Christ was and is indeed without sin according to four scripture passages in the New Testament...2 Corinthians 5:21, Hebrews 4:15, 1 Peter 2:22, and 1 John 3:5 (w/ Hebrews 13:8).

Why does God raise up the wicked? Just so that they can attack the holy city?

"Take up your cross and follow Jesus" simply means that when we receive Jesus as the Lord of our lives, His love is the Lord of our lives. And His love translates into the acronym JOY--Jesus, Others, You. When we put Christ first, others second, and ourselves last, it amounts to love--taking...

One thing that has been getting me is that when people do us wrong, we are to bless and not curse...to me this amounts to rewarding them for doing me wrong! But nevertheless, the Lord wants me to do it. I still pray every one of the Psalms about twice a month concerning whatever may apply...

I think that if I took the rotten apple for myself it would be foolish at the very least for me to eat it: how holy am I going to be if I end up getting sick all over the table? o_O:confused::eek::rolleyes:

If those are the definitions, then it doesn't make much sense to be holy, impaho.

I would only point out that Jesus died in our place and that this is the epitome of the gospel. Because it is true it means that we are no longer under the law if we believe in Christ. I do not see the need to apologize for something that was said tongue-in-cheek in the first place.

You learn something new every day! :eek::D:cool::p

Ditto.

It (Hebrews 9:22) does mean what we have always interpreted it to mean; that we are justified by nothing less than the blood of Jesus Christ (Romans 5:9, Romans 3:25). Romans 3:25 is not disanulled by the scripture that you have quoted...which, btw, was out of context and not quoted exactly...

1 Peter 3:20-21 and Acts of the Apostles 4:10-12 might indeed tell us so. If baptism saves, then it would not be baptism in titles but in the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth that saves...so it is not about a phrase but about a NAME. Of course a man can be saved merely by calling upon that...

He has to pick up his own cross and die on it in order to be saved...so of course that would be the case.

You are now on my ignore list (Romans 16:17), since you have not confessed that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh...that means, in a physical, human body. He is come in the flesh...since you deny this fact, I believe the scripture (i.e. 1 John 4:1-3, 2 John 1:7) declares that you are not of...

I think that you have to answer Revelation 20:8 and context; for it contradicts your end-times theology.

I certainly don't see the word of God proclaiming it the way that you are saying it is. See Revelation 20:8 and context.

@ScottA 1 John 4:1-3 and 2 John 1:7 show that when He returns, it cannot be but that He will be in His physical body... I would ask you whether you confess that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh? Your statements above (post #70) would indicate that you do not confess but deny this... Which...