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Ouch! Do you praise the Lord with that mouth?

One name for one God. See Ex 3:15. 15God also said to Moses, “Say this to the children of Israel: ‘Yahweh, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever, and this is how I am to be remembered for generation...

The cherry on top of the Trump administration is seeing Liberal heads explode on a daily basis. So shocked, the propagandist sycophant's can only copy and paste other apoplectic displays with the moral, proof of how wrong you are is how upset I am. LOL To wit is this gem. Exerpt from 'No one...

No verse teaches this. There must be a rationalization for making this claim, such as expressed forgiveness, issued Judgment. Why would the Creator pose as one of his Created?

@GodsGrace refuses to answer what is someone called who follows Christ. Sad, isn't?

Well said! This is the most illogical thing ever. 1 is the loneliest number. Haven't you ever heard that song?

All you got is personal attack, Appeal to Authority (right @HealthyShape?). In other words, one logical fallacy after another. Because what you claim is not actually taught in Scripture. Just ignore the 1,000's of times God uses singular pronoun to "support" your doctrine.

It is called False Alternative. You invoke so many logical fallacies, it is hard to keep up! Lately, you've been relying on Appeal to Authority. This instead of addressing my 4 points one at a time or answering the demonstrable question of how you suppose verse 18 of John 1 contradicts itself...

If this were true, there would be no need to check ID and make check points. ICE is still there.

The word does not end in "s." Elohim means heavenly beings, which is plural but does not mean God is a plural person.

They lost the election. They are in the minority. Yet, they assert the power to create law. This is sedition.

False. Just because there is more than one type of heavenly being (Elohim) does not mean the person of God is plural. One way to know this is the literal 1,000’s of time God refers to himself in the 2st person singular. See 1C. You shall have no gods before me.

What authority do they have to do this?

False Alternative. This is one interpretation among others equally valid. Why eliminate these other interpretations, other than they don't align with the trinity narrative?

The Babylon Bee's satire is great.

Not what I quoted from the source: For some reason, you want to disregard that consistency throughout John. The article I sourced also states: a brief note should be offered here. Irenaeus (late 2nd century) would be considered earlier than B and contemporaneous with 75. The Latin text of...

Even in John 1, Jesus is not God.

You are pretending lIke this is referring to 1 person rather than two persons.

Jesus himself said the Father is the only true God. You just ignore this.

Yes. Perhaps you are reading this in a way that makes it seem your take is correct, when it’s not. The tradition that you espouse is wrong, the majority of texts say son. For some reason, you keep making Appeal to Majority. Is the word in the source material referring to offspring or creator...