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You not answering the Acts 2:36 question tells the story. No translation with ‘James’ in the title is readable to me, thus defeating the translation purpose. Acts 2:36?

Nonetheless, a common trinitarian tactic is to divert attention. This thread is about Acts 2:36. What is the most rational translation you’ve come across for that verse?

Not in my translation. Godhead must be from a trinitarian corrupted translation that imposed its wholly doctrine onto unitarian text.

I was witnessing to a young man who gave this rationale for him not praying. Although I know what the Bible says and I quoted various passages, I was disappointed in my overall response. So, how do you answer this question?

Per 2:9 nowhere is “the God head” or Jesus mentioned.

LOL. It’s awesome when trinitarianism rely on Scripture that undermines their doctrine. “His body” is the entire church consisting of billions - not a 3-member head. Colossians 2:9 The Voice 9 You see, all that is God, all His fullness, resides in His body.

“Fullness of Godhead” is doctrine not found in Scripture.

See my thread entitled Evidence to be Seen.

By that ‘logic’, we are all God.

Clearly, you have no concept what identity is, the Law of Identity. Are all numbers = 1 or just 2 & 3? If not, why not?

EOC = Eastern Orthodox Church

No such passage exists. Again, this thread is ONLY about the Acts 2:36 passage. Hope this helps.

LOL. Untrue talking point and projecting. This thread is about Acts 2:36 and you are avoiding the OP’s question.

@theefaith, I've noticed you posted about Dan 13 in several posts. Seems like the chapter of the day for you. To answer your question, let me ask this. Is the Books in the EOC Bible but not in the RCC Bible the inspired word of God or not?

Did you mean to refer to Scripture or tradition in these posts? Otherwise, Tradition is oral Scripture; is that what you are saying?

Wonderful but irrelevant to the question of this thread. Appeal to Diversion. A common tactic of trinitarians. This thread is about Acts 2:36, not the Greek language or 2 Peter.

This tells me you have lost the argument to retreat to a different language.

That does not answer the question of this thread. We will have to agree to disagree that v1 and v11 are not referring to a different quantity of people. Basic definition shows God is synonymous with LORD but not lord. As I already pointed out, the Bible has many lords, of which Jesus is one...

I did answer. You just did not like my answer. B. Jesus is our Lord and Savior (just not the LORD God almighty). What is your answer to this thread’s question?

I’ve address this over 100 times. Trinitarians deliberately confuse the LORD God almighty with the many lords in the Bible. Yes, Jesus is our Lord but he is not the LORD God almighty. Hope this helps.