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Dis Jesus or God the Father make male and female?... And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept. 6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.

Amen, but to the non-born again person, they are under the Law. The sacrifice does not cover their sins.

The unity Jesus was speaking of is the infilling of the Spirit that he had, being one with his God. Then the next verse said that WE should be one with them the same exact way...Holy Ghost infilling.

21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. 22 And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:

The unity I teach is the unification of God with a man Jesus. God filled the man on earth with the Holy Ghost and was unified with the man. God left(unfilled) the man on the cross. God made the spirit of the man omnipresent after resurrecting the man from the dead and refilled the spirit man...

The Law is still in effect, but not for the righteous... 8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully; 9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of...

The Father made nothing? Or, the Father made everything by, for and through the begotten human son?.

Amen, they are under the Law.

Jesus said only God is good, which God loves to hear.

No silly, I am posting a verse with Jesus himself saying only God is good. You assume much.

Who said he was evil?

Amen. However, that leaves those that are not Christ's under the Law.

Only those that are born again via Acts 2:38 and are walking in the Spirit are dead to the Law.

God was in the form of Himself? God's flesh thought it not robbery to be equal with God's Spirit? Is this the spin zone?

God is in the form of God? God humbled Himself to devils and let them kill Him? Is this some kind of new doctrine I am hearing from you?

The reason I posted the controversial verse is because I am objective. The status quo is appalled by the verse. They should have read it before they invented the incarnation theory.

Apparently not. He, in the flesh, said God is a Spirit in John 4:24. This means God is not flesh.

Should this verse even be in the Bible?.... And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God. It ruins our presupposition, so I say delete it.

Trippy, huh?

I answered them all with Jesus' answer... And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God. Which is sufficient, correct?