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He loves everyone. But we only gain access to His grace by faith. Right there in Romans 5:2 which you cited: "...we have gained access by faith into this grace"

The words "grace" and "faith" occur in numerous verses, as I've shown. If John had meant "grace" in 1 John 4:10, he would have written "grace". He knew the difference between love and grace. God loves the whole world, but that love does not save the whole world. Only those who receive grace...

If it's the same nation, Israel, then it's the same priests and priesthood. I'm simply extending your logic. Let's be literal.

The Church in Galatia was predominantly Gentile. That is why Paul, appointed as the apostle to the Gentiles, wrote his letter to the Galatians.

Let's further investigate the literalism which you apply to the holy nation in 1 Peter 2:9. Your claim is that because Israel is a literal nation in Exodus 19:6, therefore it is also a literal nation in 1 Peter 2:9. If the nation is literal, then all other descriptions in Exodus 19:6 and 1...

There is no Grace without Faith, brother. Romans 1:17 For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith. Romans 3:30 Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith...

So 1 Peter 2:9 includes Christian Gentiles. But haven't you been telling us that it includes only Christian Jews because Peter's letter is addressed only to Christian Jews?

The Church and the 144,000 Revelation 7:3-4 describe the 144,000 as “sealed.” That description is reserved in the NT for believers in Christ – His Body and Bride – His Church: 2 Corinthians 1:21-22 Now He who establishes us with you in Christ and anointed us is God, who also sealed us and gave...

Scripture?

More interesting questions. In Exodus 19:5-6, did God exclude Israelite Gentiles from His descriptions regarding Israel? Certainly not. So why would Gentiles be excluded from the same descriptions in 1 Peter 2:9?

Explain how the nation of Israel today, which as an antichrist rejects Christ and His Gospel, qualifies as: a chosen generation a royal priesthood a holy nation a peculiar people called out of darkness into light

Scripturally, what is the numerical value of a majority?

Peter turned "nation" into a metaphor. He was justified in doing so. He also metaphorized chosen generation, royal priesthood, peculiar people, darkness, and light. You repeatedly forget that OT Israel was comprised of both Jews and Gentiles. Thus there was no ethnic difference between the...

If an individual covenants with God, the individual represents him/her self. If a nation covenants with God, who represents the nation? If the US were to covenant with God, who is the king that would represent the US today?

In God's New Will and Testament, all covenants and promises are fulfilled only in Christ, and in those who are in Christ. The OT covenants and promises are the promissory clauses of God's Old Will and Testament, and they are both revoked and fulfilled in the promissory clauses of His New Will...

I count multiple churches in 1 Peter 1:1. The collection of God's Churches comprises God's Church, so the expressions are interchangeable and synonymous. Since when are God's Elect not God's Church? Peter turned it into a metaphor. "Ye/you" are the listed Churches (or Elect if you wish...

The Christian churches, whom Peter established at the beginning of his letter as being his audience, were not a political entity. So "ye" in 1 Peter 2:9 were the Christian churches, and were not and could not be a political entity. Peter was simply being consistent. Why do you have a problem...

We've been over this already. Paul is writing to the Christian churches, comprised of both Jews and Gentiles, in the listed Roman provinces. That's who "ye" are in 1 Peter 2:9. What's your problem?

True. And flee they did.

Obviously you don't know why they fled, otherwise you would have told us. From Scripture.