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See post #147

5 (The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection. So who is the rest of the dead? When do they come to life? When does revelation chapter 20 show the rest of the dead come to life?

Verse 5 says so

Unless There is a binding and a separate reigning

But the bible shows that the 7th trumpet is at the end of our world on the judgement day I believe that the mystery of God was that the gentiles would be one flock with the believing Jews

What i'm saying in point form is that the binding ends is when satan is released for his little season The reigning ends after satan little season just like the verse says

If there is only one thousand years then how come the scriptures shows two different endings? 7 When the thousand years are over, Satan will be released from his prison Satan is released and does his final assault on the church before he is cast into hell. 5 (The rest of the dead did not...

Because there are two separate thousand years one the binding and one the reigning. Satan’s binding for 1000 years starts in Revelation chapter 20:2 2 He seized the dragon, that ancient serpent, who is the devil, or Satan, and bound him for a thousand years. Satan’s 1000 year binding ends in...

But Revelation 20 separates them it describes the binding and the reigning and your two text's were the binding

What do you mean you said that it said millennium and the words you posted said thousand years? It can’t get more valid than that

No it doesn’t the actual text you posted yourself says thousands years not millennium

Actually it doesn’t literally say the millennium ends it says the thousand years and the text in both parts that you highlighted is satans binding not the reigning

Actually I’m an amill and what I believe is that satans little season is at the end part of the millennial age not after it. It’s after the binding ends not the reigning

Humm sorry but I still don’t get what you’re actually saying or claiming

Hi Scott what exactly are you saying?

So all day today I have been debating with about 5 or 6 of you and all you have done is post views about me that I never claimed. You have also thrown verses at me that have no bearing on this topic Not one of you have answered my direct question about proving how a literal mark doesn’t...

I have never claimed that no one can repent from having the mark what I claimed is that if it’s a literal mark then they can because of John 3:16 thus the mark is real and can’t be a literal mark but a symbolic mark of unrepentant devotion to the beast

Once again??????

So then you agree that if they can’t repent from a literal mark that then contradicts John 3:16

I have already explained this but stop side stepping with questions and explain how a literal make doesn’t contradict scripture