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Because you don't want to see. The prophecy is of a man among the people of Israel, not God incarnate.

As a student of history, I must set the record straight. The Founding Father's added the religiously significant #12 Amendments to the Constitution, The famous 10 Bill of Rights and 2 others. 11th: Judicial Limits of Jurisdiction 12th: Choosing POTUS & VP. After the disastrous Revolution of...

No answer to my 2nd question or how 1:45 proves Jesus was the literal expected prophet Moses told us about in Deut 18:15-18? Sad IDOLATRY. Sad intellectual dishonesty.

Think. Words are not a different person from the person who speaks them. Also, the entire Bible (written by Jewish Unitarians, who reject the trinity to this day), Gospel of John, chapter 1 and especially Deut 18:15-18 and 1:45 have to be looked at in perspective.

I read this great article about this from zerohedge. The 14A always included 2 requirements. Born or naturalized. Subject to the Jurisdiction of the US. It was only in the last couple of decades that the Left has disregarded the 2nd requirement, which specifically excludes illegal aliens...

This reminds me of a vid the other day that said for years that THE DEMOCRATS MAJOR IN MINORS.

You got to be kidding me?! You claim his figurative prologue means God came incarnate - in contradiction of 1:45, Deut 18:15-18 - but is excluded from his literal purpose statement? Trinitarian logic on display.

Do you understand figurative language? And while we’re at it, answer my 2nd question? We all know you claim to have answered it already. It’s just not true.

Figurative. In V2, this (word) was with God in the beginning. The word was made flesh, not God was made flesh. If your take is correct, why is it not in John’s literal purpose statement, 20:31?

Of course, Trinitarians want to confuse divinity, OF, with deity, IS.

No, you didn’t answer the 2nd question. The word was God but not Jesus.

Right! Not God was made flesh! And why do you gore my 2nd question?

God does not become as he is unchanging and has no flesh.

If you knew what Houtos means, you would not make this claim. THIS is with God at the beginning, not he (Jesus).

Yes, I am a Christian. Trinitarians falsely equate the 2. Yes, I follow a man named Jesus who is anointed by YHWH. YHWH gave this anointed man all authority in heaven and Earth. Read Deut. 28:15-18. Compare to John 1:45. Then read the whole chapter 1 from this point of view, this prophecy...

We’ve done numerous laps on this false claim by trinitarians. Two questions: Did you read the thread on Houtos means this (not he)? If the claim that Jesus is God incarnate is correct, why did John not put it in his purpose statement of 20:31?

No, he’s not and just ignore what I wrote about Moses.

Profound projection. John 1:45 is literal affirmation that Jesus is the man among the people of Israel chosen by God that Moses told them about that God would put his words in that man’s mouth.

Willful ignorance

LOL. Another trinitarian tried to do this projection. Biblical unitarians accept the teachings of Scripture, there is one God, the Father, Jesus is a man, God’s name is YHWH. Trinitarians reject the explicit teachings of the Bible and invent and reach at every turn. When it comes to reaching...