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Is what Jesus said applicable or not applicable to Jews and non-Jews in our time?

“No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him.” (John 6:44, ESV)

A trait which caused me to start this thread with you specifically in mind. The answer to the question I asked in post #14 and rephrased for clarity in post #19.

“One of the greatest threats to Christianity is calling anything you don’t like or don’t understand ‘the greatest threat to Christianity.’” - Michael J. Svigel

I received the answer I was looking for. Thanks again for watching the video clips.

From AD 381 on, 100%. Between 325 and 381 the percentage is unknown. The best information we have preserved is the testimony that “many” did not.

* Quality over quantity, but 46% no quantity is a reading crisis. *

”I didn’t mean to become a Christian.” @Riven when I listen to him, I hear echoes of you.

Example. “[Jesus] was a first-century Jewish monotheist.” (N.T. Wright, Jesus And The Victory of God, p. 652) Wright is a trinitarian (Anglican). He affirms the Nicene creed. There is only one reason that he makes this concession about Jesus -> the constraints of history.

Jesus himself is a Jewish monotheist. That is a constraint of history. Trinitarian scholarship acknowledges it. If someone wants to deny that Jesus is a Jewish monotheist, they will. I can’t stop them from doing it, but they won’t ever be able to persuade me that he isn’t. Jesus himself doesn’t...

No, the Father himself isn’t a monotheist. The Son himself is a Jewish monotheist. God himself calling Jesus theos - which he does - doesn’t literally make Jesus God himself. Jesus is functionally God, not literally God, in the theology of Jewish monotheism. Dr. Witherington (and other...

There’s nothing to argue about. Jesus is a Jewish monotheist. Scripture aligns with him, not against him. Of course I will. Everyone will.