A Biblical Abortion?

[RLT63]

Forcing a woman to drink bitter water that causes severe contractions to her womb is intended to cause miscarriage.

At least the NIV has the courage to reveal the truth of the curse.

There’s nothing in the text to indicate that the woman was pregnant. This is the NIV interpreting scripture not translating it. They may be right but I haven’t seen anyone produce any evidence that they are.

 

[BlessedPeace]

There’s nothing in the text to indicate that the woman was pregnant. This is the NIV interpreting scripture not translating it. They may be right but I haven’t seen anyone produce any evidence that they are.

Translation interprets the intention in the rite.

Ignore that as you wish. Presuming an alleged adulteress could carry the seed of her sin,is the reason for the curse.

Her body going into contractions would have no other purpose than to miscarry the seed of her sin.

 

[RLT63]

Translation interprets the intention in the rite.

Ignore that as you wish. Presuming an alleged adulteress could carry the seed of her sin,is the reason for the curse.

Her body going into contractions would have no other purpose than to miscarry the seed of her sin.

Have you ever considered the possibility that the purpose could be to sterilize her if she was guilty? Here is the link that you posted

Bitter Water - Encyclopedia of The Bible - Bible Gateway

www.biblegateway.com

 

[BlessedPeace]

Have you ever considered the possibility that the purpose could be to sterilize her if she was guilty? Here is the link that you posted

Bitter Water - Encyclopedia of The Bible - Bible Gateway

www.biblegateway.com

I know the link. Have you considered what's being said there?

If you put the text in context you'll see what it is saying.

If the alleged adulteress did not miscarry,she would be free to bear children.

If sterility were a factor of guilt, how would those who judged her in that rite know that? When the rite was intended to produce immediate evidence of either guilt or innocence.

The fact is,if we recall the New Testament, Jesus saved an accused adulteress from being stoned to death.

The reason the passage in the above verse says the woman would be free to bear children is because, were she to miscarry there in the temple during the rite she would be stoned to death for adultery.

 

[RLT63]

I know the link. Have you considered what's being said there?

If you put the text in context you'll see what it is saying.

If the alleged adulteress did not miscarry,she would be free to bear children.

If sterility were a factor of guilt, how would those who judged her in that rite know that? When the rite was intended to produce immediate evidence of either guilt or innocence.

The fact is,if we recall the New Testament, Jesus saved an accused adulteress from being stoned to death.

The reason the passage in the above verse says the woman would be free to bear children is because, were she to miscarry there in the temple during the rite she would be stoned to death for adultery.

To accept your view means that God aborted the children because of what their parents did.
I’m not sure that I’m comfortable accusing God of performing abortions.

 

[BlessedPeace]

To accept your view means that God aborted the children because of what their parents did.
I’m not sure that I’m comfortable accusing God of performing abortions.

God doesn't require us to approve his ways.

As he tells us,he does all that he pleases.

Many unborn babies were slaughtered by order of God.

 

[RLT63]

God doesn't require us to approve his ways.

As he tells us,he does all that he pleases.

Many unborn babies were slaughtered by order of God.

Okay. You go with that. I will maintain the “I’m not sure “ view

 

[Mark51]

The Test for an Unfaithful Wife​

11 Then the Lord said to Moses, 12 “Speak to the Israelites and say to them: ‘If a man’s wife goes astray and is unfaithful to him 13 so that another man has sexual relations with her, and this is hidden from her husband and her impurity is undetected (since there is no witness against her and she has not been caught in the act), 14 and if feelings of jealousy come over her husband and he suspects his wife and she is impure—or if he is jealous and suspects her even though she is not impure— 15 then he is to take his wife to the priest. He must also take an offering of a tenth of an ephah[a] of barley flour on her behalf. He must not pour olive oil on it or put incense on it, because it is a grain offering for jealousy, a reminder-offering to draw attention to wrongdoing.

16 “‘The priest shall bring her and have her stand before the Lord. 17 Then he shall take some holy water in a clay jar and put some dust from the tabernacle floor into the water. 18 After the priest has had the woman stand before the Lord, he shall loosen her hair and place in her hands the reminder-offering, the grain offering for jealousy, while he himself holds the bitter water that brings a curse. 19 Then the priest shall put the woman under oath and say to her, “If no other man has had sexual relations with you and you have not gone astray and become impure while married to your husband, may this bitter water that brings a curse not harm you. 20 But if you have gone astray while married to your husband and you have made yourself impure by having sexual relations with a man other than your husband”— 21 here the priest is to put the woman under this curse—“may the Lord cause you to become a curse[b] among your people when he makes your womb miscarry and your abdomen swell. 22 May this water that brings a curse enter your body so that your abdomen swells or your womb miscarries.”

“‘Then the woman is to say, “Amen. So be it.”

23 “‘The priest is to write these curses on a scroll and then wash them off into the bitter water. 24 He shall make the woman drink the bitter water that brings a curse, and this water that brings a curse and causes bitter suffering will enter her. 25 The priest is to take from her hands the grain offering for jealousy, wave it before the Lord and bring it to the altar. 26 The priest is then to take a handful of the grain offering as a memorial[c] offering and burn it on the altar; after that, he is to have the woman drink the water. 27 If she has made herself impure and been unfaithful to her husband, this will be the result: When she is made to drink the water that brings a curse and causes bitter suffering, it will enter her, her abdomen will swell and her womb will miscarry, and she will become a curse. 28 If, however, the woman has not made herself impure, but is clean, she will be cleared of guilt and will be able to have children.

29 “‘This, then, is the law of jealousy when a woman goes astray and makes herself impure while married to her husband, 30 or when feelings of jealousy come over a man because he suspects his wife. The priest is to have her stand before the Lord and is to apply this entire law to her. 31 The husband will be innocent of any wrongdoing, but the woman will bear the consequences of her sin.’”

Verse 21 in the NIV says the unfaithful wife will have a miscarriage. Many other versions say nothing about a miscarriage they say her belly will swell and her thigh will rot. If I give someone something to drink for the purpose of causing a miscarriage that is an abortion. Was God causing miscarriages or did the translators get carried away here?

The term “thigh” is used here to denote the procreative organs. The “falling away” or “shall rot” suggests the degeneration of these organs, so that conception or future conceptions would be impossible. Consequently, pregnancy was something a married woman desired and safeguarded because children were viewed as a blessing (Psalms 127:3; 128:3), and barrenness was considered a shame and a reproach.-1Samuel 1:11; Luke 1:24.

Furthermore, if the woman was not adulterous, then her husband was required to make her pregnant.