My friend, I have covered all of these points of yours over and over in these threads. But let me say that your criticism of my saying a Christian can't sin tells me something about your level of understanding. Why? Because I never made that up, that's why. It was a quote from scripture. If you think it is gormless, then please inform the Holy Spirit, Who inspired John to write it down (1John 3:9). In your case, I suppose the scriptures have lost their profitability to correct. I gave the explanation for it.IBeMe said:You're not making any sense. The reason we need salvation is because we have sin. Jesus says He'll turn no one away. But, after all our sins are forgiven, we're responsible for our actions.
That's beyond vacuity, Bro.
How gormless is that? ... A person can't sin?
Why did Jesus tell folks to sin no more?
This is what Paul reminds us;
"For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins ... certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries ... hath trodden under foot the Son of God ... counted the blood of the covenant ... an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace"
You're trying to turn the "grace of our God into lasciviousness."
"For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ."
Case in point, do you think I don't know about Heb.10:26? I have studied it in depth. But one does not study just one verse. He looks at the context from which it came and examines the entire thought process around it. The last verse in that chapter says we are not of those who draw back to perdition but of those who BELIEVE to the saving of the soul.
Next, you are probably going to tell me what willful sin is. I have seen others try that as well. Unfortunately, they forget that they did not use that phrase. The author of Hebrews used it and it is the only place in scripture it is found. Therefore it means what he meant it to mean, not you or I. He is speaking of sinning outside of the blood sacrifice of Jesus through unbelief in it or rejection of it ( if you even care to study it for yourself). He just got through explaining why the old sacrifices were vastly inferior to that of Jesus and how they have been replaced by His sacrifice. Therefore there is no sacrifice for those Jews (that's who the letter was written to), who do not turn to faith in His blood.
Think about this. Under the old covenant of law, because of sin, God had provided animal sacrifices to keep them in good standing. Are you going to tell me that the blood of bulls and goats accomplished more under that covenant than the precious blood of Jesus does under this one? His sacrifice does not keep us in good standing? Great covenant, man! Let's all rejoice.
I marvel at the conflict in your understanding. If we have to stop sinning to stay in good standing, then no Christian can remain in good standing. So then, I suppose you are of the continual confession and repentance crowd. So here is what is happening. We can't stop sinning, as you insist, but we are supposed to stop or lose salvation, as you insist. So we have a clause for that. We can confess it to God and get forgiveness. O, that's real convenient. And I am the one who is turning grace into lasciviousness? Give your head a shake.
By the way, please tell me which translation literally uses the term.."remission of sins that are past". If it exists, I will have a look. Otherwise, I will think twice about taking seriously those who think its reasonable to misquote scripture. My translation uses the word "forbearance" . God did not need forbearance to simply forgive a person's past sins. Paul was describing two time frames. That is why he also says "at this present time". Besides, the passage makes no attempt at expounding on any such idea that it is only the past sins of a person that are remitted and not the future ones. But anyone who has any understanding of what happens to us at the new birth, would not come to the conclusion you are coming to, that ONLY past sins are forgiven upon being born again. I don't know who is teaching you this dung but I advise that you learn from another source.
Have a look at Heb.6:1-6. It gives the reason why the foundations need only be visited once. Because if a person were to fall away it would be IMPOSSIBLE to get his life back again through repentance. The gift of eternal life is a one time gift. It may be a little (a lot) harder to give it back than some people think it is.
Why do you think that Paul describes the old man as having been crucified with Christ? He told the Ephesians to put off the old man and put on the new man (Eph.4:24) who is created according to God in true righteousness and holiness. Here is the truth. We have the old man of sin, which is our body of flesh, who is alive but has the position and sentence of death on him, and we have the new man of righteousness, which is our new spirit born from God, and is eternal. The part of us that contains the sin nature is legally dead and the part of us that contains God's nature is never going to be held responsible for sin. This is how it is that we cannot sin, even though we do. One is our present reality, the other is our position with God. 2Cor.4:7..." We have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellence of the power may be of God and not of us". The minute you make your salvation "about you" , you fall into unbelief. It is through the obedience and righteousness of ONE MAN (Rom.5:15-19) that we stand before God.